Nursing Elites

1. What is a condition where the alveoli are gradually destroyed, leading to shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange?

• A. Emphysema
• B. Pulmonary fibrosis
• C. Pulmonary edema
• D. Lung cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Emphysema. Emphysema is a chronic lung condition where the alveoli (air sacs) in the lungs are damaged, reducing the surface area available for gas exchange. This destruction leads to symptoms like shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange. Choice B, pulmonary fibrosis, involves scarring and thickening of the lung tissue, not destruction of alveoli. Choice C, pulmonary edema, is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli. Choice D, lung cancer, is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli.

2. The client on warfarin has an INR of 1.2. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Increase the dose of warfarin
• B. Administer vitamin K
• C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• D. Hold the next dose and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the dose of warfarin. An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the dose is subtherapeutic. The priority action in this situation is to adjust the dose to achieve the target therapeutic INR range (usually 2-3) to prevent thromboembolic events. Administering vitamin K is not necessary as the INR is low, and there are no signs of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority in this case since the INR is subtherapeutic. Holding the next dose and notifying the healthcare provider would delay the intervention needed to adjust the dose and achieve the therapeutic range.

3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?

• A. Severe headache
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Seizures
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Seizures are the most concerning side effect of lidocaine IV administration due to its potential to indicate lidocaine toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular collapse. Headache, nausea, and tremors are not typically associated with lidocaine IV and are less concerning compared to seizures in this context.

4. The client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Increase the dose of digoxin.
• C. Continue the current dose of digoxin.
• D. Administer potassium supplements.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of digoxin would further raise the risk of toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose could exacerbate the toxicity risk. Choice D is incorrect because administering potassium supplements alone is not sufficient to address the potential digoxin toxicity; the first step should be to hold the digoxin and seek further guidance.

5. What is a condition where the walls of the arteries in the lungs become thickened and stiff, leading to increased blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries?

• A. Pulmonary hypertension
• B. Pulmonary fibrosis
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Pulmonary edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulmonary hypertension is a condition characterized by the thickening and stiffening of the arteries in the lungs, resulting in elevated blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries. This condition is distinct from the other choices provided. Pulmonary fibrosis involves scarring of lung tissue, pulmonary embolism is a blockage in the pulmonary artery, and pulmonary edema is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs.

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