ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. What is the most common psychogenic disorder among elderly individuals?
- A. Depression
- B. Sleep disturbances (e.g., bizarre dreams)
- C. Inability to concentrate
- D. Decreased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Depression is the most common psychogenic disorder among elderly individuals. It can manifest as persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities that were once enjoyed. Elderly individuals may also experience changes in appetite, sleep disturbances, and difficulty concentrating. Detecting and addressing depression in the elderly is crucial for their overall well-being and quality of life.
2. Which action would break sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?
- A. Using sterile forceps instead of sterile gloves to handle a sterile item
- B. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
- C. Placing a sterile object at the edge of the sterile field
- D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring it into a sterile container
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves can introduce contaminants and compromise the sterility of the item. It is crucial to maintain strict adherence to sterile technique to prevent infections and ensure patient safety during procedures.
3. If a patient asks the nurse for her opinion about a particular physician and the nurse replies that the physician is incompetent, the nurse could be held liable for:
- A. Slander
- B. Libel
- C. Assault
- D. Respondent superior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, if the nurse makes a false verbal statement about the physician being incompetent, it is considered slander. Slander is the act of making defamatory spoken statements or gestures. Libel, on the other hand, refers to defamatory statements that are written or published. Assault involves the threat of physical harm, and respondent superior is a legal doctrine holding an employer responsible for the actions of an employee in the course of employment.
4. What is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient who develops dyspnea and shortness of breath?
- A. Maintain the patient on strict bed rest at all times
- B. Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as needed
- C. Administer high-flow oxygen immediately
- D. Encourage the patient to engage in vigorous physical activity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining the patient in an orthopneic position as needed is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient experiencing dyspnea and shortness of breath. This position helps to optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and alleviate breathing difficulties. It is a strategic intervention to enhance respiratory function in patients with respiratory distress. Choice A is incorrect because strict bed rest may not address the underlying respiratory issue effectively. Choice C is premature as administering high-flow oxygen should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Choice D is inappropriate as encouraging vigorous physical activity can exacerbate breathing problems in a patient experiencing dyspnea.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9�C (100.2�F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
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