ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals
1. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
- B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.
3. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
4. The client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of phenelzine. The nurse should instruct the client that it is not safe to eat which of the following foods while taking this medication?
- A. whole grain bread
- B. Avocados
- C. Smoked salmon
- D. Pepperoni pizza
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Avocados contain high levels of tyramine, which can cause a hypertensive crisis when consumed with phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). It is essential for clients taking MAOIs to avoid foods rich in tyramine to prevent dangerous interactions and potential health risks.
5. A client is receiving vecuronium for acute respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering with this medication?
- A. Fentanyl
- B. Furosemide
- C. Famotidine
- D. Dexamethasone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during mechanical ventilation. When administering vecuronium, it is common to also give an opioid analgesic, such as fentanyl, to manage pain and ensure the patient's comfort. Fentanyl is often used in combination with neuromuscular blocking agents to provide balanced anesthesia, making it the appropriate medication to anticipate administering in this scenario.
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