ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals
1. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
2. When educating a client who experienced a pneumothorax, which of the following statements should the nurse use?
- A. Notify the provider if you experience weakness.
- B. You should be able to return to work in 1 week.
- C. You need to wear a mask when in crowded areas.
- D. Notify your provider if you experience a productive cough.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After experiencing a pneumothorax, it is crucial for the client to be educated on potential complications. A productive cough can indicate infection or another issue, requiring prompt medical attention. Weakness, returning to work, and wearing a mask in crowded areas are important considerations but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory symptoms post-pneumothorax.
3. If a patient's blood pressure is 150/96, what is his pulse pressure?
- A. 54
- B. 96
- C. 150
- D. 246
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pulse pressure is calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure from the systolic pressure. In this case, the systolic pressure is 150 and the diastolic pressure is 96. Therefore, the pulse pressure is 150 - 96 = 54. Pulse pressure represents the force generated by the heart with each contraction and is an important indicator of cardiovascular health.
4. Which of the following statements about chest X-rays is false?
- A. There are contraindications for this test
- B. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and buttons above the waist
- C. A signed consent is not required
- D. Eating, drinking, and medications are allowed before this test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because there are contraindications for chest X-rays, such as pregnancy or concerns about radiation exposure. Patients may need to remove jewelry and metallic objects to prevent interference with the imaging. While a signed consent is typically not required for a routine chest X-ray, there are specific situations where consent may be necessary. It is essential for patients to follow fasting instructions before certain types of chest X-rays to obtain accurate results.
5. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
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