ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. When is the most appropriate time for obtaining a sputum specimen for culture?
- A. Early in the morning
- B. After the patient eats a light breakfast
- C. After aerosol therapy
- D. After chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Obtaining a sputum specimen early in the morning is the most appropriate time because secretions have accumulated overnight. This timing provides the best sample with the least contamination, leading to more accurate culture results and aiding in diagnosing respiratory infections effectively.
2. When removing a contaminated gown, what should be the first thing touched by the nurse?
- A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
- B. Waist tie in front of the gown
- C. Cuffs of the gown
- D. Inside of the gown
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should ensure the first thing touched is the waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown. This procedure helps prevent contamination by ensuring that the outer surface of the gown, which is likely to be contaminated, is not touched during removal. By touching the back ties first, the nurse minimizes the risk of transferring any contaminants to themselves or the environment.
3. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?
- A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
- B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
- C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
- D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.
4. A nurse is talking with another nurse on the unit and smells alcohol on her breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Confront the nurse about the suspected alcohol use.
- B. Inform another nurse on the unit about the suspected alcohol use.
- C. Ask the nurse to finish administering medications and then go home.
- D. Notify the nursing manager about the suspected alcohol use.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Confronting the nurse about the suspected alcohol use is the most appropriate action in this situation. It is essential to address the issue directly and express concerns about patient safety and potential impairment. By addressing the situation promptly, the nurse can potentially prevent harm and provide support to the colleague in need.
5. A client requests the creation of a living will. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Schedule a meeting between the hospital ethics committee and the client.
- B. Evaluate the client's understanding of life-sustaining measures.
- C. Determine the client's preferences about post-mortem care.
- D. Request a conference with the client's family
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client requests the creation of a living will, the nurse's priority is to evaluate the client's understanding of life-sustaining measures. This involves ensuring that the client comprehends the implications of various life-sustaining interventions and can make informed decisions about their care preferences in the event they are unable to communicate them later. It is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's comprehension to ensure that the living will accurately reflects the client's wishes and values.
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