ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. When is the most appropriate time for obtaining a sputum specimen for culture?
- A. Early in the morning
- B. After the patient eats a light breakfast
- C. After aerosol therapy
- D. After chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Obtaining a sputum specimen early in the morning is the most appropriate time because secretions have accumulated overnight. This timing provides the best sample with the least contamination, leading to more accurate culture results and aiding in diagnosing respiratory infections effectively.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has experienced a left-hemispheric stroke. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Impulse control difficulty
- B. Poor judgement
- C. Inability to recognize familiar objects
- D. Loss of depth perception
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients who have experienced a left-hemispheric stroke may exhibit symptoms of agnosia, which is the inability to recognize familiar objects or people. This occurs due to damage to the right hemisphere of the brain, which is responsible for visual and spatial perception. Impulse control difficulty, poor judgment, and loss of depth perception are not typically associated with left-hemispheric strokes.
3. Which of the following is included in Orem’s theory?
- A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air
- B. Self-perception
- C. Love and belonging
- D. Physiological needs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Orem's theory, also known as the Self-Care Deficit Nursing Theory, focuses on individuals' ability to perform self-care to maintain health and well-being. One specific component of this theory is the maintenance of a sufficient intake of air, which is crucial for sustaining life and overall health. Option A is the correct choice as it directly relates to meeting physiological needs, such as the intake of air, to support optimal functioning and health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically align with Orem's emphasis on self-care and meeting physiological requirements.
4. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?
- A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
- B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
- C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
- D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.
5. The physician orders a platelet count to be performed on Mrs. Smith after breakfast. The nurse is responsible for:
- A. Instructing the patient about this diagnostic test
- B. Writing the order for this test
- C. Giving the patient breakfast
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's responsibility in this scenario is to instruct the patient about the diagnostic test ordered by the physician. This includes explaining the purpose of the test, any necessary preparations, and what to expect. The nurse is not responsible for writing the order, as this is the physician's role. Additionally, providing breakfast is not directly related to the platelet count test. Therefore, the correct answer is A, which aligns with the nurse's role in educating and supporting the patient regarding the test.
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