Nursing Elites

1. What is the first sign of puberty in boys?

• A. Enlargement of testes
• B. Decreased levels of testosterone
• C. Voice deepening
• D. Pubic hair

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first sign of puberty in boys is typically the enlargement of the testes. This is due to the increase in production of testosterone, which leads to physical changes such as growth of the testes. Choice B, decreased levels of testosterone, is incorrect as puberty is marked by an increase in testosterone levels. Choice C, voice deepening, and choice D, pubic hair growth, usually occur later in the puberty process compared to testicular enlargement, making them incorrect answers.

2. The clinic nurse is reviewing the immunization guidelines for hepatitis B. Which are true of the guidelines for this vaccine?

• A. The hepatitis B vaccination series should be begun at birth
• B. All are applicable
• C. Any child not vaccinated at birth should receive two doses at least 4 months apart
• D. An unimmunized 10-year-old child should receive three doses administered 4 weeks apart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatitis B vaccination should start at birth, and any child or adolescent not vaccinated should complete the series. Adolescents should receive three doses if they were not previously vaccinated.

3. The parent of a child hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis asks the nurse why blood pressure readings are being taken so often. What knowledge should influence the nurse's reply?

• A. The antibiotic therapy contributes to labile blood pressure values.
• B. Hypotension leading to sudden shock can develop at any time.
• C. Acute hypertension is a concern that requires monitoring.
• D. Blood pressure fluctuations indicate that the condition has become chronic.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acute hypertension is a common complication of acute glomerulonephritis, requiring frequent monitoring to prevent complications such as encephalopathy or heart failure. Blood pressure fluctuations can occur but are not necessarily indicative of chronic disease.

4. Several types of long-term central venous access devices are used. What is a benefit of using an implanted port (e.g., Port-a-Cath)?

• A. You do not need to pierce the skin for access.
• B. It is easy to use for self-administered infusions.
• C. The patient does not need to limit regular physical activity, including swimming.
• D. The catheter cannot dislodge from the port even if the child plays with the port site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Implanted ports like the Port-a-Cath are fully implanted under the skin, allowing the child to maintain regular physical activities, including swimming, without the risk of dislodging the catheter. Piercing the skin is still required for access, and self-administration is more complex.

5. What is the purpose of using cimetidine (Tagamet) for gastroesophageal reflux?

• A. The medication reduces gastric acid secretion.
• B. The medication neutralizes the acid in the stomach.
• C. The medication increases the rate of gastric emptying time.
• D. The medication coats the lining of the stomach and esophagus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cimetidine (Tagamet) is an H2 receptor antagonist that works by reducing gastric acid secretion. This action helps to decrease the acidity in the stomach, which in turn reduces the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux. Choice B is incorrect because cimetidine does not neutralize acid but rather decreases its production. Choice C is incorrect as cimetidine does not affect the rate of gastric emptying time. Choice D is incorrect as cimetidine does not coat the lining of the stomach and esophagus but instead works to reduce gastric acid secretion.

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