the first sign of puberty in boys is
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Nursing Care of Children ATI

1. What is the first sign of puberty in boys?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first sign of puberty in boys is typically the enlargement of the testes. This is due to the increase in production of testosterone, which leads to physical changes such as growth of the testes. Choice B, decreased levels of testosterone, is incorrect as puberty is marked by an increase in testosterone levels. Choice C, voice deepening, and choice D, pubic hair growth, usually occur later in the puberty process compared to testicular enlargement, making them incorrect answers.

2. A six-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection. Which of these factors contribute to urinary tract infections in young children?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infrequent voiding can lead to urinary stasis, which increases the risk of urinary tract infections by allowing bacteria to multiply in the bladder. Encouraging regular voiding and proper hydration can help prevent UTIs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Excessive intake of carbonated beverages may irritate the bladder but is not a direct cause of UTIs. Insufficient water intake can concentrate urine but does not necessarily lead to infections. A voiding pattern of 5-6 times a day is within the normal range and is not associated with increased UTI risk.

3. The nurse is caring for a child with Meckel diverticulum. What type of stool does the nurse expect to observe?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Currant jelly-like stools, which contain blood and mucus, are characteristic of Meckel diverticulum. This symptom occurs due to the bleeding from the ectopic gastric mucosa present in the diverticulum. Steatorrhea (choice A) is not typically associated with Meckel diverticulum. Clay-colored stools (choice B) are seen in conditions affecting the biliary system. Loose stools with undigested food (choice D) may indicate malabsorption issues, but it is not specifically linked to Meckel diverticulum.

4. A child diagnosed with aplastic anemia is admitted to the hospital. The parents ask the nurse what aplastic anemia is. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, leading to pancytopenia. This can result in fatigue, infections, and bleeding tendencies. It is not characterized by abnormal red blood cell shapes, but rather by a reduction in the production of blood cells. Therefore, the accurate response is that aplastic anemia is caused by the bone marrow producing inadequate cells. Choices A and B are incorrect as aplastic anemia does not cause a proliferation of white blood cells or involve abnormally shaped red blood cells. Choice D is incorrect as aplastic anemia is not typically a disorder that occurs after a viral illness.

5. Physiological anorexia in toddlerhood occurs because of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Physiological anorexia in toddlers occurs due to a decreased appetite as growth rates slow down. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the concept that toddlers experience a natural decrease in appetite as their growth rate decreases. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they suggest increased appetite or other factors not associated with physiological anorexia in toddlerhood.

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