Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider prescribes a higher-than-usual dose of medication. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer the medication and monitor closely.
• B. Hold the medication and consult the pharmacist.
• C. Ask another nurse to verify the dose.
• D. Call the provider for clarification.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to call the provider for clarification. When faced with a higher-than-usual dose of medication, the nurse's first action should be to contact the prescribing healthcare provider to confirm the dosage. Administering the medication without clarifying the dose with the provider can pose serious risks to the patient's safety. Holding the medication and consulting the pharmacist may be appropriate after contacting the provider for clarification. Asking another nurse to verify the dose is not the most appropriate action when dealing with an unusual prescription; direct communication with the provider is essential in such situations.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Decrease the client's IV fluids
• B. Reposition the client
• C. Administer oxygen by face mask
• D. Document the findings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering oxygen by face mask is the priority intervention when late decelerations are observed in the fetal heart rate. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, and administering oxygen helps to improve fetal oxygenation. Repositioning the client may also be necessary to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, but providing oxygen takes precedence to enhance fetal oxygenation. Decreasing IV fluids may not directly address the underlying issue leading to late decelerations. Documenting the findings is important but should not be the first action taken when managing late decelerations.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
• B. Administer furosemide to the client
• C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
• D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.

4. What is the primary goal when caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Maintain the patient's oxygen saturation above 90%.
• B. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• C. Improve the patient's nutritional intake.
• D. Encourage the patient to limit physical activity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain the patient's oxygen saturation above 90% when caring for a patient with COPD. In COPD, impaired gas exchange leads to decreased oxygen levels in the blood. By ensuring oxygen saturation remains above 90%, healthcare providers can prevent hypoxia and its complications. Administering bronchodilators as prescribed (Choice B) is an important intervention in managing COPD symptoms, but it is not the primary goal. Improving the patient's nutritional intake (Choice C) and encouraging the patient to limit physical activity (Choice D) are also essential aspects of COPD management, but they are not the primary goal when caring for a patient with this condition.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Hip pallor
• B. Leg abduction
• C. Muscle spasms
• D. Leg lengthening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle spasms are a common finding in clients with hip fractures. The muscle spasms occur due to the body's natural response to the injury, causing involuntary contractions. Hip pallor (Choice A) is not typically associated with hip fractures. Leg abduction (Choice B) and leg lengthening (Choice D) are not typical findings in clients with hip fractures, as the fracture usually results in limited range of motion and shortening of the affected limb.

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