the client on warfarin has an inr of 45 what is the most appropriate action by the nurse the client on warfarin has an inr of 45 what is the most appropriate action by the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

2. When teaching a client about the correct use of a cane, what should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When instructing a client on the use of a cane, it is essential to ensure that the cane has a rubber tip. This rubber tip helps prevent slipping, providing additional stability and safety. Option A, holding the cane on the weaker side, is incorrect as the cane should be held on the stronger side to provide better balance and support. Option C, keeping the cane on the dominant side, is also incorrect because the cane should be held on the stronger side. Option D, using the cane only on stairs, is not comprehensive as the cane can be used for support and balance while walking on level ground as well.

3. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common adverse effect of lisinopril is a persistent dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause irritation in the respiratory tract, leading to a cough. Monitoring for a persistent cough is essential as it may indicate a serious adverse effect that requires medical attention. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common adverse effect of lisinopril. Headache (Choice C) and dry mouth (Choice D) are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Cough.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice A, 'Loose stools,' is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice C, 'Hypertonia,' is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns; instead, hypotonia may be observed. Choice D, 'Abdominal distention,' is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns.

5. A client is being educated by a nurse on snacks suitable for a low-fat, low-sodium, and low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A slice of cheese

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A slice of cheese. Cheese is high in fat, sodium, and cholesterol, making it unsuitable for a low-fat, low-sodium, and low-cholesterol diet. Choices B, C, and D are more appropriate for such a diet. B: A jam sandwich can be low in fat, sodium, and cholesterol if made with whole grain bread and a low-sugar jam. C: A cup of plain popcorn is a good choice as it is low in fat and can be made without added salt. D: A small container of applesauce is also a suitable option for a low-fat, low-sodium, and low-cholesterol diet.

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