Nursing Elites

1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer vitamin K.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

2. What is the condition where the heart's mitral valve becomes narrowed, restricting blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle?

• A. Mitral stenosis
• B. Aortic stenosis
• C. Tricuspid regurgitation
• D. Pulmonary hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mitral stenosis is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the heart's mitral valve, which hinders the flow of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle. This obstruction can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath and fatigue. Aortic stenosis (choice B) is the narrowing of the aortic valve, not the mitral valve. Tricuspid regurgitation (choice C) is the backflow of blood through the tricuspid valve, not narrowing. Pulmonary hypertension (choice D) is increased blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries, not narrowing of the mitral valve.

3. What is the term for a blood clot blocking an artery in the lungs, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath and chest pain?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks an artery, causing symptoms like shortness of breath and chest pain. Choice B, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), involves a blood clot forming in a deep vein, usually in the legs. Choice C, myocardial infarction, refers to a heart attack due to blocked blood flow to the heart muscle. Choice D, pneumothorax, is a collapsed lung due to air leaking into the chest cavity.

4. What is a chronic lung disease that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema?

• A. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
• B. Pneumonia
• C. Asthma
• D. Tuberculosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). COPD is a chronic lung condition that encompasses chronic bronchitis and emphysema, causing airflow obstruction from the lungs. Pneumonia (choice B) is an infection in the lungs, while asthma (choice C) is characterized by airway inflammation and constriction. Tuberculosis (choice D) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but is distinct from COPD.

5. The nurse is teaching a client about side effects of ACE inhibitors. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough in patients. This side effect is important to monitor because it can indicate the development of angioedema, a serious adverse reaction that requires immediate medical attention. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not typically the most important one to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also possible side effects of ACE inhibitors, but they are not as critical to monitor as the development of a persistent cough.

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