ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf
1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Administer vitamin K.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.
2. What is a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are delayed or blocked, leading to a slower or irregular heartbeat?
- A. Heart block
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Arrhythmia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer because it specifically refers to a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are delayed or blocked, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. Tachycardia (choice B) is a condition characterized by a fast heart rate, Bradycardia (choice C) is a slow heart rate, and Arrhythmia (choice D) is a general term used to describe any abnormal heart rhythm, which may or may not involve delays or blocks in electrical impulses.
3. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases heart rate
- C. Increases blood pressure
- D. Decreases blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.
4. What is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space to help a patient breathe easier?
- A. Thoracentesis
- B. Bronchoscopy
- C. Chest X-ray
- D. CT scan
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where fluid or air is removed from the pleural space in the chest to help the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure to visualize the airways, while Chest X-ray (choice C) and CT scan (choice D) are imaging tests and do not involve the removal of fluid or air from the pleural space.
5. This heart condition is characterized by decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can lead to organ failure.
- A. Cardiogenic shock
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Endocarditis
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is a severe condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump enough blood, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can result in organ failure. Choice B, Myocardial infarction, specifically refers to a blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle. Choices C and D, Endocarditis and Pericarditis, do not directly involve decreased cardiac output leading to organ failure, making them incorrect in the context of the symptoms described in the question.
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