ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. What is the ability of cardiac cells to respond to an impulse by transmitting the impulse along cell membranes?
- A. Contractility
- B. Automaticity
- C. Conductivity
- D. Rhythmicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Conductivity. Conductivity refers to the ability of cardiac cells to transmit impulses along cell membranes. Contractility (Choice A) is the ability of cardiac cells to contract in response to an electrical stimulus, not transmit impulses. Automaticity (Choice B) is the ability of cardiac cells to spontaneously generate electrical impulses. Rhythmicity (Choice D) refers to the regular generation of electrical impulses by the heart's pacemaker cells, not the transmission of impulses along cell membranes.
2. This is a more accurate indicator of tissue perfusion. It represents the cardiac output in terms of liters per minute per square meter of body surface area. Its normal range is 2.4-4 L/min.
- A. Cardiac Index
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Ejection fraction
- D. Cardiac output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac Index. Cardiac Index is a measure of cardiac output relative to body surface area, providing a more accurate assessment of tissue perfusion. It is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area. The normal range for cardiac index is 2.4-4 L/min/m². Choice B, Stroke volume, refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction and is not adjusted for body surface area. Choice C, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's ventricles with each contraction, not adjusted for body surface area. Choice D, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, without considering body surface area.
3. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases heart rate
- C. Increases blood pressure
- D. Decreases blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.
4. The nurse is administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client. What is the most important lab value to monitor?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. White blood cell count
- D. aPTT
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin, it is crucial to monitor the platelet count because enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count helps in detecting this adverse effect early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin, white blood cell count, and aPTT are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically for enoxaparin administration.
5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.
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