Nursing Elites

1. What is an infection that causes inflammation in the air sacs of one or both lungs, which may fill with fluid or pus?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Tuberculosis
• C. Pleurisy
• D. Pulmonary edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pneumonia. Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs, which may fill with fluid or pus, causing symptoms like cough, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. Tuberculosis (B) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but is caused by a different bacterium. Pleurisy (C) is inflammation of the tissues that line the lungs and chest cavity, not the air sacs. Pulmonary edema (D) is a condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs' air sacs but is often due to heart problems rather than an infection.

2. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer vitamin K.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

3. This medication type is used to relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing blood pressure.

• A. Vasodilator
• B. Anticoagulant
• C. Diuretic
• D. Beta-blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasodilator. Vasodilators are medications that work by relaxing and widening blood vessels, which improves blood flow and reduces blood pressure. They are commonly used in the treatment of heart conditions. Anticoagulants (choice B) are medications that prevent blood clot formation, diuretics (choice C) increase urine production to reduce fluid retention, and beta-blockers (choice D) reduce heart rate and workload on the heart. These mechanisms differ from the action of vasodilators.

4. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Administer fresh frozen plasma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.

5. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

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