the client on furosemide lasix is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.

2. What is the term that describes the inability of cardiac cells to respond to a new stimulus while they are still in contraction from a previous stimulus?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Refractoriness is the correct term to describe the inability of cardiac cells to respond to a new stimulus while they are still in contraction from a previous stimulus. This period is essential for the heart to complete its contraction and relaxation phases without interference. Excitability refers to the ability of cells to respond to stimuli, not the inability to respond. Contractility is the force of cardiac muscle contraction, and automaticity is the ability of cardiac cells to generate electrical impulses spontaneously, which are not relevant to the described scenario.

3. The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Administering acetaminophen can help relieve the headache. Holding the next dose of nitroglycerin (Choice B) may not address the current headache, and discontinuing nitroglycerin immediately (Choice C) without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous due to the potential for rebound hypertension. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is not necessary for a common side effect like a headache, and the nurse can manage this symptom independently.

4. Which condition is characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways resulting in excess mucus production, leading to frequent coughing and breathing difficulties?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Chronic bronchitis. Chronic bronchitis involves long-term inflammation of the bronchi, leading to excessive mucus production, frequent coughing, and breathing difficulties. Asthma (B) is characterized by reversible airway obstruction and bronchospasms. Pneumonia (C) is an infection of the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. COPD (D) is a term used to describe chronic lung diseases that cause airflow blockage and breathing-related problems.

5. What procedure is used to remove fluid from the pleural space to help a patient breathe more easily?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where a needle is inserted into the pleural space to drain fluid, relieving pressure and helping the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure used to examine the airways, not to drain fluid. An echocardiogram (choice C) is an imaging test to assess the heart's structure and function, not related to draining pleural fluid. A CT scan (choice D) is a cross-sectional imaging test that provides detailed pictures of the inside of the body, not used for draining pleural fluid.

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