Nursing Elites

1. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

2. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.2 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Holding the next dose of warfarin is not enough to address the high INR, and increasing the dose would further elevate the INR level. Monitoring the INR closely is important, but in this case, immediate action is needed to counteract the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

3. Which medication is used to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, reducing the risk of stroke and heart attack?

• A. Anticoagulant
• B. ACE inhibitor
• C. Beta-blocker
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anticoagulant.' Anticoagulants are medications specifically designed to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, which effectively reduces the risk of stroke, heart attack, and other cardiovascular events. Choices B, C, and D, which are ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, respectively, do not have the primary mechanism of action to prevent blood clot formation. ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers are commonly used for managing hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions by different mechanisms of action.

4. Which term refers to high blood pressure, a condition where the force of the blood against the artery walls is too high?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hyperlipidemia
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypertension. Hypertension is a condition characterized by persistently high blood pressure, which increases the risk of heart disease and stroke. Choice B, Hypotension, refers to low blood pressure. Choice C, Hyperlipidemia, is the term for high levels of fats in the blood. Choice D, Diabetes, is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels.

5. Which chronic condition is characterized by abnormally thickened heart muscle, making it harder for the heart to pump blood efficiently?

• A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
• C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
• D. Ventricular hypertrophy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. In this condition, the heart muscle becomes abnormally thickened, leading to difficulties in pumping blood efficiently. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves the enlargement of the heart chambers, not thickening of the heart muscle. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, impairing its ability to fill properly. Ventricular hypertrophy (choice D) refers to the thickening of the heart's ventricle walls, which can result from various conditions, not solely hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

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