the client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Practice Exam

1. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

2. This is a type of lung disease that results from the inhalation of certain dusts, often in the workplace, leading to lung damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pneumoconiosis is the correct answer. It is a lung disease caused by inhaling certain types of dust, commonly in a workplace setting, resulting in lung damage. Asbestosis (choice B) is a specific type of pneumoconiosis caused by asbestos fibers. Silicosis (choice C) is another type of pneumoconiosis caused by inhaling crystalline silica dust. Anthracosis (choice D) is a condition characterized by the accumulation of coal dust particles in the lungs, not necessarily resulting in lung damage.

3. The nurse is caring for a client on amiodarone who complains of visual disturbances. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Visual disturbances in a client taking amiodarone can indicate amiodarone toxicity, a serious side effect. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly is essential for further assessment and management. Reassuring the client that this is a common side effect (choice B) is incorrect as visual disturbances should not be dismissed without evaluation. Advising the client to monitor their symptoms at home (choice C) may delay necessary intervention. Suggesting the client reduce physical activity (choice D) is unrelated to addressing visual disturbances caused by amiodarone.

4. Which of the following is a central vasoconstrictor and peripheral vasodilator?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Epinephrine. Epinephrine acts as a central vasoconstrictor and peripheral vasodilator. It increases heart rate and blood flow to muscles, helping to prepare the body for a 'fight or flight' response. Parasympathetic nervous system (choice A) does not cause vasoconstriction but rather vasodilation. The sympathetic nervous system (choice B) is primarily responsible for the fight or flight response, causing vasoconstriction. Dopamine (choice C) primarily acts as a neurotransmitter and hormone, not directly causing central vasoconstriction and peripheral vasodilation.

5. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin and low potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a potassium supplement (choice A) without healthcare provider guidance can worsen the situation. Continuing the current digoxin dose (choice C) can further increase the risk of toxicity. Administering Digibind (choice D) is used in severe cases of digoxin toxicity, not for addressing low potassium levels.

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