the client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Practice Exam

1. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

2. The client is on warfarin and has an INR of 1.5. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the client may be at risk of clot formation. The nurse's priority action should be to hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent further reduction of the INR. Increasing the dose could potentially lead to an increased risk of bleeding, and continuing the current dose may not be sufficient to bring the INR within the therapeutic range. Monitoring the client's INR closely is important but not the priority action in this scenario.

3. The client is on nitroglycerin patches. What should the nurse include in the client’s education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Rotate the application site with each new patch.' When educating a client using nitroglycerin patches, it is essential to rotate the application site to prevent skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because applying the patch at the same time each day is not a critical aspect of patch application. Choice C is incorrect as nitroglycerin patches are usually left on for a specific period, typically 12 to 14 hours, before being replaced. Choice D is incorrect because applying the patch to the same site each time can lead to skin irritation and tolerance development.

4. The client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of digoxin would further raise the risk of toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose could exacerbate the toxicity risk. Choice D is incorrect because administering potassium supplements alone is not sufficient to address the potential digoxin toxicity; the first step should be to hold the digoxin and seek further guidance.

5. The nurse is administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin, it is crucial to monitor the platelet count because enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count helps in detecting this adverse effect early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin, white blood cell count, and aPTT are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically for enoxaparin administration.

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