the client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Practice Exam

1. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

2. What is the condition where the blood flow through the coronary arteries is reduced or blocked, leading to chest pain or heart attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Coronary artery disease (CAD). CAD occurs when the coronary arteries are narrowed or blocked, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of chest pain or heart attack. Choice B, Atherosclerosis, is a condition characterized by the hardening and narrowing of arteries due to the buildup of plaque. Choices C and D, Pulmonary embolism and Pulmonary hypertension, involve issues related to the lungs and not the coronary arteries.

3. The client on a beta blocker has a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on a beta blocker presents with a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. Beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure, which is already low in this case. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) would exacerbate the hypotension. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would be inappropriate and unsafe given the low blood pressure. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) could lead to a delay in necessary intervention. Therefore, the priority is to hold the medication and seek guidance from the healthcare provider.

4. The client is on enalapril (Vasotec) for hypertension. What side effect is most commonly associated with this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like enalapril. ACE inhibitors can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to irritation of the respiratory tract and resulting in a persistent dry cough. Hypotension (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common than a dry cough. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is another side effect of ACE inhibitors, but it is not the most commonly associated one. Headache (choice D) is not a common side effect of enalapril compared to a dry cough. Therefore, the most commonly associated side effect with enalapril is a dry cough.

5. What is a type of heart disease that involves the thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, reducing its ability to pump blood?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a type of heart disease characterized by the thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, leading to a reduced ability to pump blood. This condition is different from dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B), which involves the enlargement and weakening of the heart chambers. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) is characterized by the stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill with blood properly. Arrhythmia (choice D) refers to abnormal heart rhythms and is not specifically related to thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

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