Nursing Elites

1. The client on a beta blocker has a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
• C. Increase the dose of the beta blocker.
• D. Continue to monitor the client and reassess in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on a beta blocker presents with a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. Beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure, which is already low in this case. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) would exacerbate the hypotension. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would be inappropriate and unsafe given the low blood pressure. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) could lead to a delay in necessary intervention. Therefore, the priority is to hold the medication and seek guidance from the healthcare provider.

2. The client on warfarin has an INR of 3.8. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer vitamin K.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.8 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin. Holding the next dose of warfarin would be appropriate if the INR was too high, but not as the first-line action. Increasing the dose of warfarin would worsen the situation by further increasing the INR. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to address the elevated INR is necessary.

3. Which condition occurs when the heart muscle is damaged due to a lack of oxygen, often resulting from a heart attack?

• A. Myocardial infarction
• B. Angina
• C. Pericarditis
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myocardial infarction. Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, is the condition where the heart muscle is damaged due to a lack of oxygen, typically caused by a blocked coronary artery. Angina (choice B) is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Pericarditis (choice C) is the inflammation of the pericardium, the thin sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. Pulmonary embolism (choice D) is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, often caused by a blood clot.

4. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

5. What is a condition where the heart's electrical system malfunctions, leading to an irregular heartbeat or arrhythmia?

• A. Arrhythmia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Ventricular fibrillation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Arrhythmia. Arrhythmia refers to an irregular heartbeat caused by the malfunction of the heart's electrical system. Bradycardia (choice B) is a condition characterized by a slow heart rate, while Tachycardia (choice C) is a condition characterized by a fast heart rate. Ventricular fibrillation (choice D) is a life-threatening arrhythmia where the heart's lower chambers quiver erratically.

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