the client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 28 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. The client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of digoxin would further raise the risk of toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose could exacerbate the toxicity risk. Choice D is incorrect because administering potassium supplements alone is not sufficient to address the potential digoxin toxicity; the first step should be to hold the digoxin and seek further guidance.

2. What is the procedure where a device is used to shock the heart back into a normal rhythm during a life-threatening arrhythmia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Defibrillation. Defibrillation is the procedure of using a device to deliver an electric shock to the heart during life-threatening arrhythmias like ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia to restore a normal rhythm. Choice B, Cardioversion, is similar but is typically used for less severe arrhythmias. Choice C, Echocardiogram, is a diagnostic test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart. Choice D, Ablation, is a procedure to treat certain types of arrhythmias by scarring or destroying tissue that triggers abnormal electrical signals.

3. Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath, often occurring at night and associated with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath during sleep, often associated with heart failure. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but is not specifically associated with heart failure. Choice C, Orthopnea, is difficulty breathing that occurs when lying down and is relieved by sitting up, not necessarily associated with heart failure. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficulty breathing and does not specifically describe the sudden onset at night associated with heart failure as seen in paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

4. Which term describes a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is indeed a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria. This condition can increase the risk of stroke and heart failure. Choice B, Ventricular fibrillation, is incorrect because it refers to a life-threatening arrhythmia that occurs in the ventricles, not the atria. Choice C, Atrial flutter, is incorrect as it describes a different type of atrial arrhythmia characterized by a regular but fast heartbeat. Choice D, Sinus tachycardia, is incorrect because it is a normal increase in heart rate originating from the sinus node, not an abnormal rhythm.

5. Which surgical procedure involves removing a portion of the lung?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A lobectomy is the surgical removal of a lobe of the lung. This procedure is commonly performed to treat conditions like lung cancer or severe lung diseases. Pneumonectomy involves removing an entire lung, making it incorrect. Tracheostomy is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe, not involving lung tissue removal. Bronchoscopy is a diagnostic procedure that allows visualization of the airways using a thin, flexible tube with a camera, not involving lung tissue removal.

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