the client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 28 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. The client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of digoxin would further raise the risk of toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose could exacerbate the toxicity risk. Choice D is incorrect because administering potassium supplements alone is not sufficient to address the potential digoxin toxicity; the first step should be to hold the digoxin and seek further guidance.

2. Which type of medication is used to reduce the workload on the heart by slowing down the heart rate and lowering blood pressure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Beta-blocker. Beta-blockers are medications that reduce the workload on the heart by slowing down the heart rate and lowering blood pressure. They are commonly used in the treatment of heart conditions such as hypertension and heart failure. ACE inhibitors (B) work by dilating blood vessels to reduce blood pressure, calcium channel blockers (C) prevent calcium from entering the heart muscle and blood vessel walls, and diuretics (D) help the body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production.

3. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

4. Which of the following is a central vasodilator and peripheral vasoconstrictor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is a branch of the autonomic nervous system that is responsible for the fight-or-flight response. It causes vasodilation in central vessels to increase blood flow to vital organs during stress or exercise, while inducing vasoconstriction in peripheral vessels to redirect blood to essential areas. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine are neurotransmitters associated with the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, respectively, but they are not themselves central vasodilators and peripheral vasoconstrictors.

5. A client on a beta blocker has a heart rate of 52 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 52 bpm is low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing harm. Therefore, withholding the medication and promptly informing the healthcare provider is crucial for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the bradycardia. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would further suppress the heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) might delay necessary interventions and increase the risk of complications in a client with a heart rate of 52 bpm.

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