the client is on furosemide lasix and has a potassium level of 29 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

1. The client is on furosemide (Lasix) and has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer potassium supplements. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. Therefore, the priority action is to administer potassium supplements to correct the imbalance. Option B is incorrect because holding the furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could further worsen the imbalance. Option C is incorrect as continuing the current dose of furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could lead to complications. Option D is incorrect because decreasing the dose of furosemide does not directly address the low potassium level that needs immediate correction.

2. A client on a beta blocker has a heart rate of 52 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 52 bpm is low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing harm. Therefore, withholding the medication and promptly informing the healthcare provider is crucial for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the bradycardia. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would further suppress the heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) might delay necessary interventions and increase the risk of complications in a client with a heart rate of 52 bpm.

3. A client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client on spironolactone with a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels, which are already high. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would exacerbate the hyperkalemia. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) could lead to worsening hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be contraindicated in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

4. The client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When a client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox), monitoring the platelet count is crucial as enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), causing a decrease in platelet count. Monitoring the platelet count helps detect this adverse reaction early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enoxaparin therapy does not directly affect PT/INR, aPTT, or hemoglobin levels.

5. Which chronic condition is characterized by abnormally thickened heart muscle, making it harder for the heart to pump blood efficiently?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. In this condition, the heart muscle becomes abnormally thickened, leading to difficulties in pumping blood efficiently. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves the enlargement of the heart chambers, not thickening of the heart muscle. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, impairing its ability to fill properly. Ventricular hypertrophy (choice D) refers to the thickening of the heart's ventricle walls, which can result from various conditions, not solely hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

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