ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam
1. The client is on amiodarone. What is the most important side effect to monitor for?
- A. Pulmonary toxicity
- B. Thyroid dysfunction
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Renal dysfunction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary toxicity. Amiodarone is known for causing serious pulmonary toxicity, which can be fatal. Monitoring for pulmonary toxicity is crucial due to its potential severity. Choice B, thyroid dysfunction, is a common side effect of amiodarone but is not as immediately life-threatening as pulmonary toxicity. Choices C and D, liver toxicity and renal dysfunction, are potential side effects of amiodarone but are not as critical or as common as pulmonary toxicity, making them less important to monitor initially.
2. What is the ability of cardiac cells to respond to an impulse by transmitting the impulse along cell membranes?
- A. Contractility
- B. Automaticity
- C. Conductivity
- D. Rhythmicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Conductivity. Conductivity refers to the ability of cardiac cells to transmit impulses along cell membranes. Contractility (Choice A) is the ability of cardiac cells to contract in response to an electrical stimulus, not transmit impulses. Automaticity (Choice B) is the ability of cardiac cells to spontaneously generate electrical impulses. Rhythmicity (Choice D) refers to the regular generation of electrical impulses by the heart's pacemaker cells, not the transmission of impulses along cell membranes.
3. The client is on spironolactone (Aldactone). What is the most important dietary instruction?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Avoid foods high in sodium.
- D. Increase intake of foods high in sodium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if too much potassium is consumed. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing intake of potassium-rich foods can worsen hyperkalemia, while avoiding foods high in sodium is not the primary concern when taking spironolactone.
4. The client is on warfarin and has an INR of 1.5. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Continue the current dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the client may be at risk of clot formation. The nurse's priority action should be to hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent further reduction of the INR. Increasing the dose could potentially lead to an increased risk of bleeding, and continuing the current dose may not be sufficient to bring the INR within the therapeutic range. Monitoring the client's INR closely is important but not the priority action in this scenario.
5. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer the digoxin as ordered.
- C. Increase the dose of digoxin.
- D. Administer potassium supplements.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L is considered low and can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Administering the digoxin as ordered (Choice B) would put the client at a higher risk for toxicity. Increasing the dose of digoxin (Choice C) is not appropriate when the client's potassium level is low. Administering potassium supplements (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the priority action in this situation.
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