ATI RN
Gastrointestinal System Nursing Exam Questions
1. The client has had a new colostomy created 2 days earlier. The client is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. The nurse interprets that
- A. This indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation.
- B. This is a normal, expected event.
- C. The client is experiencing early signs of ischemic bowel.
- D. The client should not have the nasogastric tube removed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: As peristalsis returns following creation of a colostomy, the client begins to pass malodorous flatus. This indicates returning bowel function and is an expected event. Within 72 hours of surgery, the client should begin passing stool via the colostomy.
2. What is the antidote for Warfarin?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Glucagon
- D. Vitamin B
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.
3. A patient with a new diagnosis of diabetes insipidus is planning care. What should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Avoid alcohol
- B. Increase exercise to reduce stress
- C. Increase fluid intake
- D. Restrict sodium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid alcohol. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination leads to fluid loss, so it is essential to avoid alcohol which can exacerbate dehydration. Choice B is incorrect as increasing exercise may not directly impact diabetes insipidus. Choice C is also incorrect because although increasing fluid intake may seem intuitive, it is not the primary concern in managing diabetes insipidus. Choice D is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus; sodium restriction is more relevant in conditions like hypertension or heart failure.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Serum glucose level.
- B. Serum calcium level.
- C. Lymphocyte count.
- D. Serum potassium level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, elevated cortisol levels lead to increased gluconeogenesis, insulin resistance, and breakdown of proteins and fats, resulting in elevated blood glucose levels. This is known as hyperglycemia. The other options, including serum calcium level (choice B), lymphocyte count (choice C), and serum potassium level (choice D), are not typically affected by Cushing's disease. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as placing the client at risk for lactic acidosis?
- A. Metformin
- B. Metoprolol
- C. Lisinopril
- D. Insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is known to have a risk of causing lactic acidosis, particularly in clients with renal impairment or predisposing conditions. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin use that can be life-threatening. Metoprolol, Lisinopril, and Insulin do not have a known association with lactic acidosis. Healthcare professionals should monitor clients prescribed metformin carefully, especially those with risk factors, to detect and manage lactic acidosis promptly.
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