Nursing Elites

1. A client presents to the emergency room, reporting that he has been vomiting every 30 to 40 minutes for the past 8 hours. Frequent vomiting puts him at risk for which of the following?

• A. Metabolic acidosis with hyperkalemia
• B. Metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia
• C. Metabolic alkalosis with hyperkalemia
• D. Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Frequent vomiting can lead to metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia due to the loss of stomach acid and electrolytes.

2. Annebell is being discharged with a colostomy, and you’re teaching her about colostomy care. Which statement correctly describes a healthy stoma?

• A. At first, the stoma may bleed slightly when touched.
• B. The stoma should appear dark and have a bluish hue.
• C. A burning sensation under the stoma faceplate is normal.
• D. The stoma should remain swollen away from the abdomen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A healthy stoma may bleed slightly when touched initially, which is normal.

3. Lactulose (Chronulac) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse would determine that this medication has had a therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted?

• A. Increased red blood cell count
• B. Decreased serum ammonia level
• C. Increased protein level
• D. Decreased white blood cell level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed for the client with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce bacterial breakdown of protein in the bowel. The medication creates an acidic environment in the bowel and causes the ammonia to leave the bloodstream and enter the colon. Ammonia then becomes trapped in the bowel. Lactulose also has a laxative effect that allows for the elimination of the ammonia.

4. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed annually over age 50 to screen for colon cancer?

• A. Abdominal CT scan
• B. Abdominal x-ray
• C. Colonoscopy
• D. Fecal occult blood test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fecal occult blood test should be performed annually for individuals over age 50 to screen for colon cancer.

5. In a client with Crohn’s disease, which of the following symptoms should not be a direct result from antibiotic therapy?

• A. Decrease in bleeding
• B. Decrease in temperature
• C. Decrease in body weight
• D. Decrease in the number of stools

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Decrease in body weight is not a direct result of antibiotic therapy but may occur due to the underlying disease process.

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