Nursing Elites

1. Which approach involves surgically implanting electrodes into specific areas of the brain to stimulate regions identified as underactive in depression?

• A. Transcranial magnetic stimulation
• B. Deep brain stimulation
• C. Vagus nerve stimulation
• D. Electroconvulsive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Deep brain stimulation is a treatment approach that involves the surgical implantation of electrodes into specific areas of the brain to stimulate regions identified as underactive in depression. This method aims to modulate brain activity and has shown effectiveness in treating certain cases of depression.

2. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder?

• A. Sertraline
• B. Valproic acid
• C. Clozapine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Valproic acid is commonly prescribed as a mood stabilizer for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps in controlling mood swings, preventing manic episodes, and reducing the risk of depressive episodes in individuals with bipolar disorder. Sertraline is an antidepressant typically used for major depressive disorder and other anxiety disorders, not for bipolar disorder. Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications primarily used in schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders, not as first-line treatments for bipolar disorder.

3. How should the nurse characterize the client's appraisal of the job loss stressor?

• A. Irrelevant
• B. Harm/loss
• C. Threatening
• D. Challenging

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement reflects a positive outlook on the job loss, viewing it as a challenge and an opportunity for personal growth. This perspective suggests that the client is resilient and adaptive, focusing on new possibilities rather than dwelling on the negative aspects of the situation. Choice D, 'Challenging,' is the correct characterization as it aligns with the client's positive appraisal. Choices A, 'Irrelevant,' B, 'Harm/loss,' and C, 'Threatening,' are incorrect as they do not capture the client's adaptive response to the stressor.

4. A client is experiencing occasional feelings of sadness due to the recent death of a beloved pet. The client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How should the nurse interpret the client's behaviors?

• A. The client's behaviors demonstrate mental illness in the form of depression.
• B. The client's behaviors are extensive, indicating the presence of mental illness.
• C. The client's behaviors are not congruent with cultural norms.
• D. The client's behaviors demonstrate no functional impairment, indicating no mental illness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should interpret the client's behaviors as not indicative of mental illness. The client is experiencing normal feelings of sadness following the loss of a pet, and the fact that the client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine remain unchanged suggests no functional impairment. It is essential to recognize that experiencing occasional feelings of sadness in response to a significant life event, such as the death of a pet, does not necessarily signify mental illness, especially when there is no significant impairment in daily functioning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they incorrectly suggest that the client's behaviors indicate mental illness, which is not the case in this context.

5. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted's wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted's mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:

• A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
• B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
• D. Lurasidone (Latuda)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can be an effective treatment for reducing mania in patients with bipolar disorder who have not responded to medication. In Ted's case, where he has a history of bipolar I disorder, lithium treatment, and manic episodes, ECT may be recommended by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to help manage his symptoms.

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