ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which approach involves surgically implanting electrodes into specific areas of the brain to stimulate regions identified as underactive in depression?
- A. Transcranial magnetic stimulation
- B. Deep brain stimulation
- C. Vagus nerve stimulation
- D. Electroconvulsive therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Deep brain stimulation is a treatment approach that involves the surgical implantation of electrodes into specific areas of the brain to stimulate regions identified as underactive in depression. This method aims to modulate brain activity and has shown effectiveness in treating certain cases of depression.
2. A nursing instructor is discussing diseases of adaptation with students and when they are likely to occur. Which student response indicates that learning has occurred?
- A. When an individual has limited experience managing stress
- B. When an individual inherits adaptive genes
- C. When an individual faces pre-existing conditions that worsen stress
- D. When an individual's physiological and psychological resources are depleted
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. During the stage of exhaustion in the general adaptation syndrome, an individual's physiological and psychological resources become depleted, leading to a reduced capacity to adapt effectively. This depletion of resources is when diseases of adaptation, such as stress-related disorders, are more likely to occur. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect an accurate understanding of diseases of adaptation. Limited experience managing stress, inheriting adaptive genes, and facing pre-existing conditions that worsen stress do not directly relate to the concept of physiological and psychological resource depletion leading to diseases of adaptation.
3. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the treatment of choice for patients managing the effects of traumatic events?
- A. I attend my therapy sessions regularly.
- B. Those intrusive memories are hidden for a reason and should stay hidden.
- C. Keeping busy is the key to achieving mental health.
- D. I've agreed to move in with my parents so I'll get the support I need.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Regular attendance at therapy sessions is a crucial aspect of the recommended treatment for managing the effects of traumatic events. Therapy provides a safe space for individuals to process their experiences, develop coping strategies, and work towards healing and recovery. Consistent participation in therapy sessions can help patients address and overcome the impact of trauma on their mental health.
4. A client with bipolar disorder is in the manic phase. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
- A. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimuli.
- B. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
- C. Monitor the client closely for signs of exhaustion.
- D. Encourage the client to rest and sleep as needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals may engage in impulsive behaviors that can put them at risk of harm. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli can help reduce the risk of injury by minimizing triggers for impulsive actions. This intervention promotes a safe and controlled setting for the client, which is crucial in managing the symptoms of mania. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice B) may increase stimuli and potentially exacerbate manic symptoms. Monitoring for signs of exhaustion (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the safety concerns related to impulsive behaviors during mania. Encouraging the client to rest and sleep as needed (Choice D) may be challenging during the manic phase when individuals typically experience decreased need for sleep.
5. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. The nurse understands that buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it:
- A. Has a high potential for abuse.
- B. Works immediately to relieve anxiety.
- C. Does not cause sedation.
- D. Is used for short-term treatment only.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it does not cause sedation. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone has a lower potential for abuse and does not cause the sedative effects commonly seen with benzodiazepines. While benzodiazepines may work immediately to relieve anxiety, buspirone may take longer to show its therapeutic effects. Additionally, buspirone is not limited to short-term treatment only, making it a preferred choice in patients where sedation is a concern or in those with a history of substance abuse.
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