Nursing Elites

1. The apnea monitor alarm sounds on a neonate for the third time during this shift. What is the priority action by the nurse?

• A. Provide tactile stimulation.
• B. Administer 100% oxygen.
• C. Investigate possible causes of a false alarm.
• D. Assess infant for color and presence of respirations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when the apnea monitor alarm sounds on a neonate is to assess the infant for color and the presence of respirations. This initial assessment helps determine the infant's respiratory status and the need for immediate intervention. Providing tactile stimulation or administering oxygen should only be done after assessing the infant's respiratory status. Investigating possible causes of a false alarm comes after ensuring the infant's well-being through the initial assessment.

2. What type of shock is characterized by a hypersensitivity reaction causing massive vasodilation and capillary leaks, which may occur with drug or latex allergy?

• A. Neurogenic shock
• B. Cardiogenic shock
• C. Hypovolemic shock
• D. Anaphylactic shock

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction that causes massive vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, leading to rapid fluid shifts and circulatory collapse if not treated promptly. Neurogenic, cardiogenic, and hypovolemic shocks have different etiologies.

3. What is the primary symptom of congenital diaphragmatic hernia in a newborn?

• A. Cyanosis
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Absent breath sounds
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Absent breath sounds on the affected side are a primary symptom of congenital diaphragmatic hernia. Cyanosis, bradycardia, and tachypnea may also be present but are not the primary symptom. Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation, bradycardia is a slower than normal heart rate, and tachypnea is rapid breathing.

4. The nurse is discussing sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with a 17-year-old student. Which cognitive development theory should the teaching plan be based on?

• A. Sensorimotor reactions
• B. Limited cause and effect understanding
• C. Abstract thinking
• D. Concrete thinking

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Abstract thinking.' According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, adolescents, typically around the age of 12 and older, enter the formal operational stage where they can think abstractly and reason about hypothetical situations. When discussing complex topics like STIs with a 17-year-old student, it is essential to base the teaching plan on abstract thinking. Choice A, 'Sensorimotor reactions,' is incorrect as it pertains to the earliest stage in Piaget's theory (birth to 2 years old) focusing on sensory experiences and physical interactions. Choice B, 'Limited cause and effect understanding,' does not align with the cognitive abilities of a 17-year-old who is capable of more advanced thinking. Choice D, 'Concrete thinking,' is also incorrect as it refers to the stage before formal operations, where individuals think more concretely and struggle with abstract concepts.

5. The nurse is caring for a child with Meckel diverticulum. What type of stool does the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Steatorrhea
• B. Clay-colored
• C. Currant jelly-like
• D. Loose stools with undigested food

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Currant jelly-like stools, which contain blood and mucus, are characteristic of Meckel diverticulum. This symptom occurs due to the bleeding from the ectopic gastric mucosa present in the diverticulum. Steatorrhea (choice A) is not typically associated with Meckel diverticulum. Clay-colored stools (choice B) are seen in conditions affecting the biliary system. Loose stools with undigested food (choice D) may indicate malabsorption issues, but it is not specifically linked to Meckel diverticulum.

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