Nursing Elites

1. A 4-month-old infant is discharged home after surgery for the repair of a cleft lip. What should instructions to the parents include?

• A. Provide crib toys for distraction
• B. Breast- or bottle-feeding can begin immediately
• C. Give pain medication to the infant to minimize crying
• D. Leave the infant in the crib at all times to prevent suture strain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pain management is essential postoperatively to reduce crying, which could place strain on the surgical site. Feeding and holding the infant are allowed, but care should be taken to avoid placing pressure on the suture line.

2. The parents of a newborn with an umbilical hernia ask about treatment options. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge?

• A. Surgery is recommended as soon as possible.
• B. The defect usually resolves spontaneously by 3 to 5 years of age.
• C. Aggressive treatment is necessary to reduce its high mortality.
• D. Taping the abdomen to flatten the protrusion is not recommended.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Most umbilical hernias in newborns resolve on their own by 3 to 5 years of age without the need for surgical intervention, unless complications arise. Surgery is not typically recommended for umbilical hernias in newborns due to the high rate of spontaneous resolution. Aggressive treatment is not necessary as umbilical hernias are typically benign and not associated with high mortality. Taping the abdomen is not recommended as it can cause skin irritation and does not speed up the resolution of the hernia.

3. A 10-month-old infant is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux. An esophageal (pH) probe monitor is ordered. What explanation for the purpose of the esophageal probe should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Assist in the passage of formula through the esophagus
• B. Identify the number of reflux episodes that are occurring
• C. Determine the time it takes for the stomach to empty its contents
• D. Monitor the pH within the stomach

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The esophageal pH probe is used to identify the frequency and severity of reflux episodes by measuring the pH in the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because the probe does not assist in the passage of formula through the esophagus. Choice C is incorrect as determining the time it takes for the stomach to empty its contents would require a different procedure. Choice D is incorrect as the esophageal pH probe monitors the pH in the esophagus, not the stomach.

4. The apnea monitor alarm sounds on a neonate for the third time during this shift. What is the priority action by the nurse?

• A. Provide tactile stimulation.
• B. Administer 100% oxygen.
• C. Investigate possible causes of a false alarm.
• D. Assess infant for color and presence of respirations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when the apnea monitor alarm sounds on a neonate is to assess the infant for color and the presence of respirations. This initial assessment helps determine the infant's respiratory status and the need for immediate intervention. Providing tactile stimulation or administering oxygen should only be done after assessing the infant's respiratory status. Investigating possible causes of a false alarm comes after ensuring the infant's well-being through the initial assessment.

5. The nurse is preparing to admit a 6-year-old child with celiac disease. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Steatorrhea
• B. All are correct
• C. Malnutrition
• D. Foul-smelling stools

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Celiac disease often presents with steatorrhea, malnutrition, and foul-smelling stools due to the malabsorption of nutrients. Therefore, all the manifestations listed (steatorrhea, malnutrition, foul-smelling stools) are expected in a child with celiac disease. Polycythemia is not associated with celiac disease, making choice B the correct answer.

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