ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted's wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted's mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:
- A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- D. Lurasidone (Latuda)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can be an effective treatment for reducing mania in patients with bipolar disorder who have not responded to medication. In Ted's case, where he has a history of bipolar I disorder, lithium treatment, and manic episodes, ECT may be recommended by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to help manage his symptoms.
2. Dr. Anodyne found a correlation of +.49 between illegal drug use and levels of adolescent delinquency. This correlation is __________ and __________.
- A. moderate; positive
- B. low; positive
- C. high; negative
- D. low; negative Answer: A Page Ref: 33 Skill Level: Apply and limitations of each. Topic: Studying Development Difficulty Level: Easy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correlation of +.49 indicates a moderate strength of relationship between illegal drug use and levels of adolescent delinquency. The positive correlation indicates that as one variable (illegal drug use) increases, the other variable (adolescent delinquency) also tends to increase.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication over 60 minutes
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level during administration
- C. Infuse the medication rapidly to reduce the risk of infection
- D. Administer the medication using a filter needle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.
4. A client is telling the nurse in the clinic that he gets a headache after taking sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for his angina pain. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Reduce the nitroglycerin dose
- B. Ask the provider to prescribe a strong analgesic
- C. Lie down in a cool environment and rest
- D. Ask the provider to prescribe a different medication
Correct answer: Lie down in a cool environment and rest
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to lie down in a cool environment and rest after taking sublingual nitroglycerin for angina pain. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects, and resting in a cool environment can help alleviate the headache. Reducing the nitroglycerin dose is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider as it may compromise the effectiveness of the medication in managing angina. Asking for a strong analgesic is not appropriate since the headache is likely related to the nitroglycerin and not a separate issue requiring a pain reliever. Requesting a different medication should also involve consulting the healthcare provider to ensure an appropriate alternative is prescribed for angina management.
5. A nurse is instructing teenage girls on the importance of adequate calcium intake throughout their life span to prevent complications. Which complication should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Goiter
- B. Osteoporosis
- C. Heart disease
- D. Dental caries
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Osteoporosis. Adequate calcium intake throughout life helps prevent osteoporosis, a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, which is common in older adults. Goiter is caused by an iodine deficiency, not calcium. Heart disease is more related to factors like cholesterol and blood pressure. Dental caries are primarily influenced by oral hygiene and sugar intake, not just calcium.
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