Nursing Elites

1. Tatiana has been hospitalized for an acute manic episode. On admission, the nurse suspects lithium toxicity. What assessment findings would indicate the nurse's suspicion as correct?

• A. Shortness of breath, gastrointestinal distress, chronic cough
• B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, large volume of dilute urine
• C. Gastrointestinal distress, thirst, nystagmus
• D. Electroencephalographic changes, chest pain, dizziness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, and a large volume of dilute urine are classic signs of lithium toxicity. Ataxia refers to a lack of muscle coordination, severe hypotension indicates dangerously low blood pressure, and the large volume of dilute urine is a result of the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine properly, a common feature of lithium toxicity.

2. A patient is being educated about the difference between mental health and mental illness. Which statement by the patient reflects an accurate understanding of mental health?

• A. Mental health is the absence of any stressors.
• B. Mental health is successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment.
• C. Mental health is incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
• D. Mental health is a diagnostic category in the DSM-5.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mental health is defined as the successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment. This includes having thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with cultural and societal norms. Mental health is not solely the absence of stressors or incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior, nor is it a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5. Choice A is incorrect because mental health is not just the absence of stressors but the ability to adapt to them. Choice C is wrong as mental health involves congruence, not incongruence, between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Choice D is inaccurate as mental health is a broader concept than a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5.

3. Which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the development of schizophrenia?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Norepinephrine
• C. Dopamine
• D. Acetylcholine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is dopamine. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excess dopamine activity in certain brain regions is associated with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Dopaminergic medications that reduce dopamine levels are often used to manage these symptoms, further supporting the role of dopamine in schizophrenia. Serotonin (Choice A) is more commonly associated with mood regulation and is implicated in depression and anxiety disorders. Norepinephrine (Choice B) is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response and is linked to conditions like anxiety and PTSD. Acetylcholine (Choice D) plays a role in muscle movement and memory but is not primarily implicated in schizophrenia.

4. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?

• A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
• B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
• C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
• D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.

5. During a panic attack, what is the nurse's priority intervention for a patient with panic disorder?

• A. Encourage the patient to verbalize their feelings.
• B. Provide reassurance and stay with the patient.
• C. Leave the patient alone to calm down.
• D. Distract the patient with a task.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a panic attack, the priority intervention for the nurse is to provide reassurance and stay with the patient. This action helps reduce fear and provides a sense of safety, which can aid in calming the patient and preventing further escalation of the panic attack. Encouraging the patient to verbalize their feelings (Choice A) may be beneficial after the acute phase of the panic attack. Leaving the patient alone (Choice C) may increase feelings of abandonment and escalate the panic attack. Distracting the patient with a task (Choice D) is not recommended during a panic attack as it may divert attention but not address the underlying anxiety and fear.

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