Nursing Elites

1. Tatiana has been hospitalized for an acute manic episode. On admission, the nurse suspects lithium toxicity. What assessment findings would indicate the nurse's suspicion as correct?

• A. Shortness of breath, gastrointestinal distress, chronic cough
• B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, large volume of dilute urine
• C. Gastrointestinal distress, thirst, nystagmus
• D. Electroencephalographic changes, chest pain, dizziness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, and a large volume of dilute urine are classic signs of lithium toxicity. Ataxia refers to a lack of muscle coordination, severe hypotension indicates dangerously low blood pressure, and the large volume of dilute urine is a result of the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine properly, a common feature of lithium toxicity.

2. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the patient to ignore the voices.
• B. Provide a structured and safe environment.
• C. Engage the patient in a debate about the reality of the voices.
• D. Ask the patient to describe the content of the hallucinations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention when a patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations is to ask the patient to describe the content of the hallucinations. This intervention helps assess the risk associated with the hallucinations and provides valuable insight into the patient's condition, aiding in developing an effective care plan. Encouraging the patient to ignore the voices (Choice A) may not address the underlying issues or risks associated with the hallucinations. Providing a structured and safe environment (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the hallucinations. Engaging the patient in a debate about the reality of the voices (Choice C) may worsen the situation by invalidating the patient's experiences.

3. A patient being treated for insomnia is prescribed ramelteon (Rozerem). Which comorbid mental health condition would make this medication the hypnotic of choice for this particular patient?

• A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
• B. Generalized anxiety disorder
• C. Persistent depressive disorder
• D. Substance use disorder

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Substance use disorder. Ramelteon is preferred for patients with substance use disorder because it lacks abuse potential. This makes it a safer choice for individuals with a history of substance misuse. Choosing a medication with a lower risk of abuse in this population is crucial to prevent potential misuse or dependence issues.

4. Which of the following interventions should a nurse include in the care plan for a client with major depressive disorder? Select one that is not appropriate.

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Discourage verbalization of feelings
• D. Monitor for suicidal ideation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Interventions for a client with major depressive disorder should focus on encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, monitoring for suicidal ideation, and providing a structured daily schedule. Discouraging verbalization of feelings goes against the therapeutic approach as expressing and discussing feelings is crucial in the treatment of major depressive disorder. Clients with major depressive disorder often benefit from talking about their emotions and experiences, as it can help in processing their feelings and promoting recovery. Therefore, discouraging verbalization of feelings would hinder the client's progress and is not an appropriate intervention.

5. During a routine health screening, a grieving widow whose husband died 15 months ago reports emptiness, a loss of self, difficulty thinking of the future, and anger at her dead husband. The nurse suggests bereavement counseling. The widow is most likely suffering from:

• A. Major depression
• B. Normal grieving
• C. Adjustment disorder
• D. Posttraumatic stress disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The widow's symptoms align more closely with an adjustment disorder rather than major depression, normal grieving, or posttraumatic stress disorder. The widow's prolonged struggle in coping with the loss, characterized by emptiness, loss of self, difficulty envisioning the future, and anger towards her deceased husband, indicates an inability to adapt to the loss. These symptoms are indicative of an adjustment disorder, which typically arises in response to a significant life stressor and persists beyond what is considered a normal grieving process. Bereavement counseling can help the widow navigate her emotions and coping strategies during this challenging period.

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