ATI RN
Human Growth and Development Exam Questions
1. T. Berry Brazelton's Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS) evaluates a newborn's __________.
- A. risk for developmental problems
- B. ability to comply with parental commands and responsiveness to touch
- C. reflexes, muscle tone, state changes, and responsiveness to stimulation
- D. heart rate, respiratory effort, reflex irritability, muscle tone, and color
Correct answer: C
Rationale: T. Berry Brazelton's Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS) evaluates a newborn's reflexes, muscle tone, state changes, and responsiveness to stimulation. This assessment helps healthcare providers understand the newborn's behavioral responses and capabilities in various areas, providing valuable insights into their overall development and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the NBAS focuses on assessing the newborn's behavioral responses and capabilities, rather than their risk for developmental problems, compliance with commands, or physiological parameters like heart rate and respiratory effort.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
- B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
- C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
- D. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying sequential compression devices is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours is contraindicated as it can dislodge a blood clot and increase the risk of embolism. Administering prophylactic antibiotics is not indicated for preventing DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest can contribute to venous stasis and increase the risk of developing DVT.
3. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Increased cardiac output
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Weigh the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention.
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours.
- C. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
- D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours. When a client is on TPN, it is crucial to monitor their blood glucose levels frequently to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Weighing the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (choice C) is important for infection control but does not directly relate to the client's metabolic status. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration (choice D) is not a standard practice and may introduce contaminants into the TPN solution.
5. The nurse is caring for a patient in the hospital. The nurse observes the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) turning off the handle faucet with bare hands. Which professional practice principle supports the need for follow-up with the NAP?
- A. The nurse is responsible for providing a safe environment for the patient.
- B. This step is crucial in the process of handwashing.
- C. Different scopes of practice allow for procedure modifications.
- D. Leaving the water running wastes resources and money.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse is responsible for providing a safe environment for the patient. In this situation, the nurse should follow up with the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) who turned off the handle faucet with bare hands to ensure infection control practices are maintained. This action is crucial to prevent the spread of infections in the hospital setting. Choice B is incorrect because the question is not specifically about handwashing procedures but about infection control practices. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of infection transmission. Choice D is incorrect as it is unrelated to the main concern of infection control in this scenario.
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