Nursing Elites

1. A client with cystic fibrosis is admitted with a pulmonary exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
• B. Initiate airway clearance techniques.
• C. Encourage the client to maintain an active lifestyle.
• D. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a pulmonary exacerbation in cystic fibrosis, the priority intervention is to initiate airway clearance techniques. These techniques help clear mucus from the airways, improving ventilation and reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Administering a high-calorie, high-protein diet is beneficial for overall nutrition but is not the priority during an exacerbation. Encouraging an active lifestyle is important for long-term health but does not address the immediate need for managing exacerbations. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is important, but initiating airway clearance techniques takes precedence in the management of pulmonary exacerbations in cystic fibrosis.

2. What are direct effects of antibodies? (Select ONE that does not apply):

• A. Neutralization
• B. Agglutination
• C. Precipitation
• D. Phagocytosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The direct effects of antibodies include neutralization, agglutination, and precipitation. Antibodies neutralize pathogens by binding to them and preventing their harmful effects. Agglutination involves the clumping together of pathogens, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf them. Precipitation refers to the process where antibodies bind to soluble antigens, forming large complexes that are easily removed from the body. Phagocytosis, on the other hand, is an indirect effect of antibodies where phagocytes engulf and destroy pathogens opsonized by antibodies, not a direct effect.

3. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?

• A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
• B. Bacterial invasion
• C. Impaired arterial blood supply
• D. Metaplastic cellular changes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.

4. A patient has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following agents will assist in raising the patient's hemoglobin levels?

• A. Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit)
• B. Pentoxifylline (Pentoxil)
• C. Estazolam (ProSom)
• D. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin that stimulates red blood cell production and is commonly used to treat anemia in patients with chronic renal failure. By increasing red blood cell production, epoetin alfa helps raise hemoglobin levels in these patients. Pentoxifylline (Choice B) is not indicated for raising hemoglobin levels in chronic renal failure patients; it is a peripheral vasodilator used to improve blood flow. Estazolam (Choice C) is a benzodiazepine used for treating insomnia and has no role in raising hemoglobin levels. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide (Choice D) is a cough suppressant and is not used to raise hemoglobin levels in patients with chronic renal failure.

5. When teaching a patient about the use of finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), what should the nurse emphasize about the expected outcomes of this therapy?

• A. Expect improvement in symptoms within a few days.
• B. Improvement in symptoms may take several weeks or months.
• C. Expect immediate improvement in urinary flow.
• D. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable as it works by shrinking the prostate gland over time. Therefore, patients should be informed that improvement in symptoms may not be immediate. Choice A is incorrect because improvement in symptoms is not expected within a few days. Choice C is incorrect as immediate improvement in urinary flow is not typical with finasteride. Choice D is incorrect because finasteride manages BPH symptoms but does not cure the condition.

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