Nursing Elites

1. A patient is hospitalized due to nonadherence to an antitubercular drug treatment. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to do?

• A. Observe the patient taking the medications.
• B. Administer the medications parenterally.
• C. Instruct the family on the medication regimen.
• D. Count the number of tablets in the bottle daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most crucial action for the nurse to take is to observe the patient taking the medications. This ensures that the patient is actually consuming the prescribed antitubercular drugs, addressing the issue of nonadherence directly. Administering the medications parenterally (intravenously or intramuscularly) is not necessary unless there are specific medical reasons requiring this route of administration. Instructing the family on the medication regimen is important for support but may not directly address the patient's nonadherence. Counting the number of tablets in the bottle daily is not as effective as directly observing the patient taking the medications to ensure compliance.

2. Rhabdomyolysis can result in serious complications. In addition to muscle pain and weakness, a patient will complain of:

• A. paresthesias.
• B. bone pain.
• C. dark urine.
• D. diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is dark urine. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, leading to the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin can cause the urine to appear dark or tea-colored, a condition known as myoglobinuria. This is a classic symptom of rhabdomyolysis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not typically present as direct symptoms of rhabdomyolysis. Paresthesias refer to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, bone pain is not a primary symptom of rhabdomyolysis, and diarrhea is not a common complaint associated with this condition.

3. In discussing sex hormone production with the patient, the nurse should describe that testosterone is normally secreted in response to

• A. sexual arousal.
• B. stimulation by luteinizing hormone.
• C. ACTH release by the adrenal cortex.
• D. decreased cortisol levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Testosterone production is regulated by the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, 'sexual arousal,' is incorrect because testosterone secretion is not directly linked to arousal but rather to hormonal stimulation. Choice C, 'ACTH release by the adrenal cortex,' is incorrect as testosterone production is not primarily regulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Choice D, 'decreased cortisol levels,' is also incorrect as cortisol and testosterone are regulated by separate endocrine pathways.

4. Which of the following is a common cause of secondary hypertension?

• A. Primary aldosteronism
• B. Essential hypertension
• C. White coat hypertension
• D. Prehypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary aldosteronism is a common cause of secondary hypertension. In primary aldosteronism, there is an overproduction of aldosterone from the adrenal glands, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion, ultimately resulting in high blood pressure. Essential hypertension (Choice B) is the most common type of hypertension, but it is considered primary hypertension, not secondary. White coat hypertension (Choice C) refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a clinical setting due to anxiety but not in daily life. Prehypertension (Choice D) is a condition where blood pressure levels are elevated but not high enough to be classified as hypertension.

5. What critical point should the nurse include in patient education regarding tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for a patient with breast cancer?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
• D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, redness, and pain in the legs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with causing hot flashes, weight gain, fluid retention, or decreasing the risk of osteoporosis.

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