ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A patient is hospitalized due to nonadherence to an antitubercular drug treatment. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to do?
- A. Observe the patient taking the medications.
- B. Administer the medications parenterally.
- C. Instruct the family on the medication regimen.
- D. Count the number of tablets in the bottle daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the most crucial action for the nurse to take is to observe the patient taking the medications. This ensures that the patient is actually consuming the prescribed antitubercular drugs, addressing the issue of nonadherence directly. Administering the medications parenterally (intravenously or intramuscularly) is not necessary unless there are specific medical reasons requiring this route of administration. Instructing the family on the medication regimen is important for support but may not directly address the patient's nonadherence. Counting the number of tablets in the bottle daily is not as effective as directly observing the patient taking the medications to ensure compliance.
2. What finding should a nurse monitor for as an adverse effect when a client has a new prescription for Spironolactone?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia can be dangerous, causing muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely is crucial when a client is on Spironolactone. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is incorrect because Spironolactone does not typically affect blood glucose levels. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hyponatremia (choice D) are also incorrect as Spironolactone's primary impact is on potassium levels.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor. Which of the following findings requires further assessment by the nurse?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15
- B. Blood drainage on the initial dressing measuring 3 cm
- C. Report of dry mouth
- D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake could indicate diabetes insipidus, a complication following hypophysectomy. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst due to inadequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options A, B, and C are all expected findings in the immediate postoperative period following a hypophysectomy. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness, blood drainage on the initial dressing is a common finding after surgery, and dry mouth can be a side effect of anesthesia and surgical procedures.
4. Because of increasing cases of fluorosis, low levels of fluoride are added to commercial infant formula. Breast milk provides low levels of fluoride.
- A. Both statements are true
- B. Both statements are false
- C. The first statement is true; the second is false
- D. The first statement is false; the second is true
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first statement is false; fluoride is not added to infant formulas due to the risk of fluorosis. The second statement is true; breast milk contains low levels of fluoride.
5. A client is scheduled for oral cholecystography. Which one of the following actions would the nurse plan to implement before the test?
- A. Have the client drink 1000 mL of water.
- B. Ask the client about possible allergies to iodine or shellfish.
- C. Administer an intravenous contrast agent the evening before the test.
- D. Administer tap-water enemas until clear.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Iodine compounds used as radiographic contrast agents, such as iopanoic acid (Telepaque), should not be administered to the client with iodine and seafood allergies because anaphylaxis may occur.
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