ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. Quality management and benchmarking are two approaches used to improve the quality of care. The major difference between these two approaches is which of the following?
- A. Quality management is not useful in the outpatient setting
- B. Benchmarking compares outcomes in a variety of settings and disciplines
- C. Quality management is used only in the primary care setting
- D. Benchmarking looks only at outcomes specific to nursing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The major difference between quality management and benchmarking is that benchmarking compares outcomes in a variety of settings and disciplines. Choice A is incorrect because quality management can be applied in both inpatient and outpatient settings. Choice C is incorrect as quality management is not limited to primary care and can be implemented across various healthcare settings. Choice D is incorrect as benchmarking does not solely focus on nursing outcomes but rather compares outcomes across different disciplines and settings.
2. Monitoring the number of times a medication is given utilizing the 'five rights' is an example of which phase of the Six Sigma program?
- A. Measure
- B. Management
- C. Quantitative
- D. Goal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the Six Sigma program, the 'Measure' phase focuses on monitoring and measuring processes to ensure they meet the desired standards. This includes tracking the number of times a medication is given correctly using the 'five rights' principle. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, 'Management,' does not specifically relate to monitoring processes or data collection, so it is not the correct answer. Choice C, 'Quantitative,' refers to the use of numerical data in decision-making, which is a broader concept and not specific to monitoring processes within the Six Sigma framework. Choice D, 'Goal,' is too general and does not capture the specific phase of Six Sigma that involves monitoring and measuring processes.
3. A ___________ manager supervises a number of first-level managers, usually within related specialties.
- A. self-directed
- B. first-level
- C. middle-level
- D. self-motivated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A middle-level manager is responsible for overseeing a group of first-level managers who handle day-to-day operations within their respective specialties. Middle-level managers play a crucial role in coordinating and aligning the efforts of multiple first-level managers to achieve organizational goals. They act as a bridge between top management and frontline employees, ensuring that strategies are effectively implemented at the operational level. Choice A, 'self-directed,' refers to an individual's ability to manage their own work without direct supervision and does not specifically relate to supervising other managers. Choice B, 'first-level,' describes the managers being supervised, not the position responsible for overseeing them. Choice D, 'self-motivated,' pertains to an individual's drive and determination, which is not directly related to the hierarchical level of management being discussed.
4. The nurse manager is talking with the CNA about her time management. Which of the following is an example of a nurse manager as a coach?
- A. Your timely response to patients' call lights is exemplary.
- B. Your appearance is seldom professional.
- C. You must get the vital signs taken on time or you will be disciplined.
- D. You never report AM blood sugar levels on time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your timely response to patients' call lights is exemplary.' This choice reflects a positive reinforcement approach, providing feedback that praises and encourages good behavior. A coach in a professional setting aims to motivate, guide, and support staff rather than focusing on negative aspects or threats of discipline. Effective coaching involves recognizing and acknowledging employees' strengths and achievements to inspire continuous improvement and development. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of coaching as they either focus on criticism regarding appearance, use threatening language, or highlight a negative behavior without offering guidance or support.
5. During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
- A. Use the Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a client experiencing pain.
- B. Palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds.
- C. Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the client's arm.
- D. Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When performing a physical assessment, it is essential to palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent altering bowel sound results due to the pressure applied during palpation. Choice A is incorrect because the FLACC pain rating scale is typically used for nonverbal or pediatric clients, not adults. Choice C is incorrect because the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should surround about 80% of the client's arm circumference, not the bladder of the cuff itself. Choice D is incorrect because to obtain an apical heart rate, auscultation should be done at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, not at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
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