nurse is admitting a client who has been having frequent tonic clonic seizures which of the following actions should the nurse add to the clients plan
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. A client who has been having frequent tonic-clonic seizures is being admitted by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse add to the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should add to the client's plan of care is to wrap blankets around side rails. This helps prevent injury during seizures by providing a cushioned surface against the hard rails. Applying restraints (Choice A) is not recommended as it can cause harm during a seizure. Using soft wristbands (Choice B) may not provide adequate protection against injury. Administering sedatives (Choice D) is not typically indicated for managing tonic-clonic seizures as they require specific anti-seizure medications.

2. A patient with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the patient's protein intake closely. In patients with chronic kidney disease on a low-protein diet, monitoring protein intake is crucial to prevent complications such as malnutrition or inadequate nutrient intake. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority over monitoring protein intake. Monitoring intake and output (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the specific focus on protein intake. Educating the patient on the benefits of a low-protein diet (Choice C) is essential but not as immediate as monitoring the actual protein intake.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a patient with chronic pain. Which finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of chronic pain management, the most concerning finding is when the patient's pain persists despite medication. This suggests inadequate pain control or the need for a re-evaluation of the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning in this scenario. A pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 is moderate and may be manageable with appropriate interventions. Patients with chronic pain can sometimes lie still due to pain or other reasons, and anxiety and restlessness are common in individuals with pain conditions but may not necessarily indicate a critical issue like uncontrolled pain.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a client with heart failure. Which of the following medications should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can worsen heart failure due to its effects on renal function and fluid retention. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the use of Ibuprofen with the provider. Choices A, B, and C (Furosemide, Spironolactone, and Digoxin) are commonly prescribed medications for heart failure that help manage symptoms and improve cardiac function, so they do not need clarification in this scenario.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who received their medications 1 hour ago. The client reports chest pain. This can be an adverse effect of what medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Albuterol. Albuterol can cause chest pain as a side effect due to its beta-agonist effects, which can lead to chest discomfort. Digoxin (choice A) is not typically associated with causing chest pain. Lisinopril (choice C) and Metoprolol (choice D) are not known to commonly cause chest pain as a side effect.

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