ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse allow the client to have?
- A. Lemon sherbet
- B. Milkshake
- C. Vanilla ice cream
- D. Grape juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Grape juice is the correct choice for a clear liquid diet because it is a liquid that is transparent and does not contain any solid particles. Lemon sherbet, milkshake, and vanilla ice cream are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet as they all contain solid particles or are not in liquid form.
2. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to discharge a client to home. Which of the following actions should the nurse take as part of the medication reconciliation process?
- A. Discontinue current medications
- B. Write new prescriptions
- C. Compare prescriptions with the client’s medications
- D. Ask the client to decide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action in the medication reconciliation process is to compare prescriptions with the client’s medications. This step ensures that there are no conflicting medications prescribed, reducing the risk of adverse drug interactions. Discontinuing current medications or writing new prescriptions without comparing them can lead to errors and potential harm. Asking the client to decide is not appropriate in this context as it is the nurse's responsibility to ensure medication safety based on professional judgment and knowledge.
3. A client is prescribed 1g of potassium phosphate IV to be infused continuously over 6 hr. Available is 1 g in 250 ml of dextrose 5%. What rate should the nurse set the IV pump to run at?
- A. 40 ml/hr
- B. 42 ml/hr
- C. 44 ml/hr
- D. 46 ml/hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the IV rate, divide the total volume by the total time in hours. In this case, 1 g in 250 ml is to be infused over 6 hours. Therefore, 250 ml / 6 hr = 42 ml/hr. This means the IV pump should be set to run at 42 ml/hr. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate based on the provided information.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. WBC count 9,000/mm3
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 50 units/L
- D. Fasting glucose 105 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.
5. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with food
- B. I should report a cough to my provider
- C. I should expect to have facial swelling when taking this medication
- D. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Reporting a cough is crucial when taking lisinopril as it can be a sign of a serious side effect, such as angioedema or cough associated with ACE inhibitors. Option A is incorrect because lisinopril can be taken with or without food. Option C is incorrect as facial swelling is not an expected side effect of lisinopril. Option D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous.
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