ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium diet. These include:
- A. A ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread
- B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken
- C. A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives
- D. Chicken bouillon
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken. Both mashed potatoes and broiled chicken are typically low in sodium content, making them suitable choices for a 500-mg low sodium diet. The other options, such as a ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, a tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives, and chicken bouillon, may contain higher amounts of sodium and are not typically recommended for a low sodium diet.
2. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
- A. Assessing clot formation potential
- B. Assessing bleeding risk
- C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
- D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
3. A nurse is talking with another nurse on the unit and smells alcohol on her breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Confront the nurse about the suspected alcohol use.
- B. Inform another nurse on the unit about the suspected alcohol use.
- C. Ask the nurse to finish administering medications and then go home.
- D. Notify the nursing manager about the suspected alcohol use.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Confronting the nurse about the suspected alcohol use is the most appropriate action in this situation. It is essential to address the issue directly and express concerns about patient safety and potential impairment. By addressing the situation promptly, the nurse can potentially prevent harm and provide support to the colleague in need.
4. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for the past 12 months. The provider notes a lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. Which of the following orders from the provider should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Withhold the next dose
- B. Increase the dosage
- C. Discontinue the medication
- D. Administer the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range for maintaining the drug's effectiveness while minimizing toxicity. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to continue administering the medication as prescribed by the healthcare provider to maintain the therapeutic effect for the client.
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