Nursing Elites

1. Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium diet. These include:

• A. A ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread
• B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken
• C. A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives
• D. Chicken bouillon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken. Both mashed potatoes and broiled chicken are typically low in sodium content, making them suitable choices for a 500-mg low sodium diet. The other options, such as a ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, a tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives, and chicken bouillon, may contain higher amounts of sodium and are not typically recommended for a low sodium diet.

2. Which of the following is included in Orem’s theory?

• A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air
• B. Self-perception
• C. Love and belonging
• D. Physiological needs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Orem's theory, also known as the Self-Care Deficit Nursing Theory, focuses on individuals' ability to perform self-care to maintain health and well-being. One specific component of this theory is the maintenance of a sufficient intake of air, which is crucial for sustaining life and overall health. Option A is the correct choice as it directly relates to meeting physiological needs, such as the intake of air, to support optimal functioning and health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically align with Orem's emphasis on self-care and meeting physiological requirements.

3. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

4. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Lie on their left side.
• B. Use the incentive spirometer.
• C. Cough at regular intervals.
• D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.

5. A client has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Potassium level
• C. Creatinine clearance
• D. Prealbumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Generalized petechiae and ecchymoses can indicate a potential issue with platelet function or count. Therefore, the most relevant laboratory test to evaluate this condition would be a platelet count. Platelet count helps assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for clotting and preventing bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels can provide important information about a client's bleeding risk and overall hematologic health.

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