ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. A patient with no known allergies is to receive penicillin every 6 hours. When administering the medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on the patient’s skin. The most appropriate nursing action would be to:
- A. Withhold the medication and notify the physician
- B. Administer the medication and notify the physician
- C. Administer the medication with an antihistamine
- D. Apply corn starch soaks to the rash
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the appearance of a rash after administering penicillin, even in a patient with no known allergies, is concerning for a potential allergic reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to withhold the medication and notify the physician. This precaution is necessary to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing an adverse reaction, as allergic reactions can range from mild to severe and require immediate intervention.
2. When planning care for a client on mechanical ventilation, which mode of ventilation that increases the effort of the client's respiratory muscles should NOT be included in the plan of care?
- A. Assist-control
- B. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation
- C. Continuous positive airway pressure
- D. Pressure support ventilation
Correct answer: Assist-control
Rationale: Assist-control ventilation mode delivers a preset tidal volume at a set rate; however, it may not be suitable for clients who need to maintain some level of respiratory muscle activity. This mode provides full support for each breath, potentially leading to decreased respiratory muscle strength over time. Therefore, it is important to avoid using assist-control mode for clients who require increased effort of respiratory muscles to prevent muscle atrophy and promote optimal respiratory function.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Increased creatinine.
- B. Increased hemoglobin.
- C. Increased bicarbonate.
- D. Increased calcium.
Correct answer: Increased creatinine.
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood, leading to an accumulation of creatinine. Creatinine levels are commonly elevated in individuals with impaired kidney function, making it a key indicator of kidney health. Therefore, an increased creatinine level would be an expected finding in a client with chronic kidney disease.
4. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
- A. Assessing clot formation potential
- B. Assessing bleeding risk
- C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
- D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
5. What is the term for the body's ability to defend itself against specific invading agents such as bacteria, toxins, viruses, and foreign bodies?
- A. Hormones
- B. Secretion
- C. Immunity
- D. Glands
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Immunity. Immunity refers to the body's ability to protect itself against specific invading agents like bacteria, toxins, viruses, and foreign bodies by recognizing and destroying them. It is a crucial defense mechanism that helps maintain health and prevent infections and diseases. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormones are chemical messengers, secretion is the process of releasing substances, and glands are organs that produce and release substances, none of which specifically relate to the body's defense against invading agents.