ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. Mario listens to Richard’s bilateral sounds and finds that congestion is in the upper lobes of the lungs. The appropriate position to drain the anterior and posterior apical segments of the lungs when Mario does percussion would be:
- A. Client lying on his back then flat on his abdomen on Trendelenburg position
- B. Client seated upright in bed or on a chair then leaning forward in sitting position then flat on his back and on his
- C. Client lying flat on his back and then flat on his abdomen
- D. Client lying on his right then left side on Trendelenburg position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Proper patient positioning is essential for maximizing lung expansion and promoting the drainage of secretions. Postural drainage techniques rely on gravity to help clear different lung segments, which is critical in preventing complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia in immobilized patients.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Albumin in my urine is an indication of normal kidney function.
- B. I will keep my HbA1c at five percent.
- C. I will have ketones in my urine if my blood glucose is maintained at 190 milligrams per deciliter.
- D. I will keep my blood glucose levels between 200 and 212 milligrams per deciliter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Maintaining an HbA1c level of 5 percent indicates good long-term blood glucose control and understanding of diabetes management. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of albumin in the urine (albuminuria) is actually an indication of kidney damage in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as ketones in the urine are a sign of inadequate insulin and can occur when blood glucose levels are high, not at a specific level like 190 mg/dL. Choice D is also incorrect as the client should aim to keep blood glucose levels within a tighter range for better control, typically between 80-130 mg/dL before meals and less than 180 mg/dL after meals.
3. Furosemide (Lasix) is a drug used to _____.
- A. activate vitamin D
- B. stimulate appetite
- C. lower cholesterol
- D. mobilize fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that helps mobilize fluids by increasing urine output, often used to treat conditions like edema and heart failure.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a thiamine deficiency. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect?
- A. Tachycardia, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination
- B. Swollen lips, cracks in the corners of the mouth, and glossitis
- C. Neuropsychiatric symptoms of delusions and hallucinations
- D. Scaly rash on arms, dementia, and diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thiamine deficiency, also known as Vitamin B1 deficiency, can present with various symptoms. Tachycardia, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination are classic signs of thiamine deficiency due to its role in energy metabolism. Swollen lips, cracks in the corners of the mouth, and glossitis are more indicative of a deficiency in riboflavin (Vitamin B2). Neuropsychiatric symptoms of delusions and hallucinations are characteristic of niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency. A scaly rash on the arms, dementia, and diarrhea are not typically associated with thiamine deficiency. Therefore, the correct assessment findings for a client with thiamine deficiency are tachycardia, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination.
5. As a nurse, you can help improve the effectiveness of communication among healthcare givers by:
- A. Use of reminders of ‘what to do’
- B. Using standardized list of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols
- C. One-on-one oral endorsement
- D. Text messaging and e-mail
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.
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