a nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has nephropathy secondary to diabetes mellitus and plans to make dietary adjustments which of th
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1. A client with nephropathy secondary to diabetes mellitus is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse and plans to make dietary adjustments. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a client with nephropathy secondary to diabetes mellitus, increasing fiber intake is essential as it can help manage blood sugar levels and improve overall bowel health. Choice A is incorrect because carbohydrates should be controlled but not limited to less than 45% of total calories. Choice B is incorrect as the recommended daily cholesterol intake for individuals with diabetes is less than 200 mg. Choice C is incorrect as protein intake should be individualized based on the client's condition and should not be limited to less than 0.8 g/kg of body weight per day.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks a nurse for a sweetener recommendation. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus looking for a sweetener is a nonnutritive sugar substitute. Nonnutritive sugar substitutes do not significantly affect blood glucose levels, making them a suitable option for individuals with diabetes. Corn syrup and natural honey are high in sugar and can lead to spikes in blood glucose levels, which is not ideal for someone with diabetes. Guava nectar, while natural, is also high in sugar content and not recommended for individuals with diabetes.

3. What is a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone pain. Vitamin D deficiency often leads to bone pain and weakness as it plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health by aiding in the absorption of calcium. Hair loss (choice A) is not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency. Night blindness (choice B) is typically associated with vitamin A deficiency, not vitamin D deficiency. Rashes (choice D) are not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency.

4. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.

5. During the first 24 hours after the thermal injury, you should assess Sergio for:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the initial phase after a thermal injury, the major concern is the release of potassium due to cell damage, leading to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia is not typically a primary concern in the immediate post-injury phase. Hyponatremia is less likely to occur initially after a burn injury. Therefore, the correct assessment for Sergio during the first 24 hours after the thermal injury would be hyperkalemia and hypernatremia.

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