Nursing Elites

1. Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?

• A. Army Nurse Corps officer
• B. First Sergeant
• C. E6, E7, or E8
• D. E3, E4, or E5

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by personnel ranked E6, E7, or E8 in the military structure. These individuals have the necessary experience and leadership skills to fulfill the responsibilities associated with these roles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because these positions are not specifically designated for Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 personnel in the military hierarchy.

2. What is a good source of potassium and can be related to increased excretion?

• A. Potassium
• B. Increased excretion
• C. Broccoli
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Broccoli is a good source of potassium and can contribute to increased excretion. While potassium itself is a mineral and increased excretion can be related to dietary intake, the specific relationship mentioned in the text is about broccoli being a good source of potassium and having a potential impact on excretion.

3. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who is constipated
• B. The client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom
• C. The client with essential hypertension who has epistaxis and a headache
• D. The client with arterial occlusive disease who has a decreased pedal pulse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis, requiring immediate intervention. Option A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, though important, does not indicate an immediate need for assessment. Option B, a client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom, does not present with urgent signs or symptoms requiring immediate assessment. Option D, a client with arterial occlusive disease and a decreased pedal pulse, needs attention but is not the priority compared to a hypertensive crisis with epistaxis and headache.

4. Before administering an MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine to a 15-month-old, which question should the nurse ask the mother of the child?

• A. “Has your child had any sore throats?”
• B. “Has your child been eating properly?”
• C. “Is your child allergic to any antibiotics?”
• D. “Has your child been exposed to any infections?”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the mother before administering the MMR vaccine to a 15-month-old is about the child's allergy to antibiotics. This is crucial because the MMR vaccine contains neomycin, an antibiotic, and being allergic to antibiotics like neomycin is a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Asking about sore throats, eating habits, or exposure to infections is not directly relevant to the administration of the MMR vaccine.

5. The nurse in the pediatric clinic performs a physical assessment of a 13-year-old boy. Which of the following findings by the nurse requires an immediate intervention?

• A. The adolescent complains of his scrotum aching after exercise. The nurse palpates a worm-like mass above the testes
• B. The nurse noted unilateral breast enlargement
• C. The child’s scrotum appears swollen, and a soft mass is palpated. The nurse is unable to insert a finger above the mass
• D. The child’s scrotum appears enlarged and red. The nurse palpated a thickened and swollen spermatic cord.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A swollen and thickened spermatic cord could indicate testicular torsion, which is a surgical emergency.

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