Nursing Elites

1. Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?

• A. Army Nurse Corps officer
• B. First Sergeant
• C. E6, E7, or E8
• D. E3, E4, or E5

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by personnel ranked E6, E7, or E8 in the military structure. These individuals have the necessary experience and leadership skills to fulfill the responsibilities associated with these roles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because these positions are not specifically designated for Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 personnel in the military hierarchy.

2. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client’s sacrum for dependent edema is crucial in the care plan for nephritic syndrome as it is common due to protein loss. Dependent edema occurs as a result of decreased oncotic pressure from protein loss in the urine. Monitoring urine for bright-red bleeding (choice A) is more relevant to conditions like glomerulonephritis. Evaluating calorie count or protein intake (choice B) is important for other conditions but not specifically for nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level (choice D) is not typically part of the immediate care plan for nephritic syndrome.

3. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

• A. Constipation
• B. Dizziness
• C. Headache
• D. B, C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.

4. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.

5. The nurse cares for a client receiving furosemide (Lasix). The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following foods?

• A. One medium baked potato
• B. One slice of white bread
• C. One medium apple
• D. One scrambled egg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: One medium baked potato. Potatoes are high in potassium, which is crucial for clients on furosemide (Lasix) to prevent hypokalemia, as furosemide can cause potassium loss. White bread (choice B) and scrambled egg (choice D) are not high-potassium foods and do not address the specific need related to furosemide therapy. While apples (choice C) contain some potassium, they are not as rich in potassium as a baked potato, making them a less optimal choice for a client on furosemide.

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