Nursing Elites

1. What is the term for the first contact between community members and other levels of health facilities?

• A. Secondary level health care
• B. Tertiary level of care
• C. Primary health care
• D. Intermediate level of care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Primary health care is the initial point of contact between community members and higher levels of health facilities. It focuses on providing essential, accessible, and affordable health care services to individuals and communities. Primary health care plays a crucial role in promoting health, preventing diseases, and managing common health problems, making it an integral part of the healthcare system.

2. What best describes the role of cultural competence in health promotion?

• A. Respecting and incorporating diverse cultural practices
• B. Avoiding cultural stereotypes
• C. Providing care that is free from cultural biases
• D. Ensuring language access services

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cultural competence in health promotion encompasses respecting and incorporating diverse cultural practices. This involves understanding and valuing the beliefs, customs, and traditions of different cultural groups to provide effective and inclusive care and education.

3. A patient who has multiple health issues is discharged after a recent hospitalization. Which of the following comprehensive programs would a community health nurse refer the patient to if the patient is not under medical supervision but does have insurance?

• A. private health care practitioner
• B. a patient-centered medical home
• C. hospital clinic
• D. subacute facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A patient-centered medical home is a comprehensive care model that provides coordinated healthcare services across various settings. It is an ideal referral for a patient with multiple health issues who is not under medical supervision but has insurance, as it offers a patient-focused approach to managing the patient's overall health needs.

4. During a health education program, a facilitator continues to ask questions and encourages attendees to contribute examples from their own lives relevant to the discussion. Which best describes the rationale for the facilitator’s action?

• A. To avoid having to prepare more material related to the topic
• B. To let the participants feel appreciated and knowledgeable
• C. To allow the participants to learn by doing through active participation
• D. To apply Freire’s principles of learning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The facilitator's action of encouraging active participation, where attendees contribute examples from their own lives, is aimed at facilitating learning through doing. This approach engages participants directly in the learning process, enhancing understanding and retention by connecting theoretical concepts to real-life experiences. Active participation promotes a deeper understanding of the material and increases the likelihood of behavior and attitude change.

5. What procedure is performed prior to a blood transfusion to detect incompatibilities?

• A. Grouping and crossmatching
• B. Complete blood count
• C. D-dimer test
• D. Blood clotting test

Correct answer: Grouping and crossmatching

Rationale: Grouping and crossmatching is the procedure performed prior to a blood transfusion to determine the blood type and identify any potential incompatibilities between the donor and recipient. This process involves testing the recipient's blood for ABO and Rh antigens and crossmatching it with the donor's blood to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions during the transfusion. Complete blood count, D-dimer test, and blood clotting test are other laboratory tests that serve different purposes and are not specifically done to detect incompatibilities prior to blood transfusion.

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