Nursing Elites

1. What is a nurse's role in health promotion?

• A. Conducting health risk appraisals
• B. Educating clients to be effective health consumers
• C. Implementing worksite wellness programs
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse plays a crucial role in health promotion by educating clients to be effective health consumers. This involves empowering individuals to make informed decisions about their health, access appropriate healthcare services, and engage in healthy behaviors to prevent illness and promote well-being. The other choices are not entirely accurate in describing the primary role of a nurse in health promotion. While nurses may conduct health risk appraisals and implement worksite wellness programs as part of their responsibilities, their central focus is on educating and empowering individuals to take control of their health.

2. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
• B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
• C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
• D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.

3. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?

• A. Less than 30 ml/hour
• B. 64 ml in 2 hours
• C. 90 ml in 3 hours
• D. 125 ml in 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?

• A. A client who experienced a near-drowning incident
• B. A client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery
• C. A client who has a hemoglobin of 15.1 g/dL
• D. A client who has dysphagia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.

5. A nurse obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse documents this finding as:

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Hyperpyrexia
• C. Arrhythmia
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse finds a client's pulse rate to be above normal, it is documented as tachycardia. Tachycardia specifically refers to an elevated heart rate, while tachypnea is rapid breathing, hyperpyrexia is high fever, and arrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat. Therefore, the correct term to describe an above-normal pulse rate is tachycardia.

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