ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. In which disorder does a Staphylococcus aureus organism produce a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?
- A. Herpes simplex I virus
- B. Herpes simplex II virus
- C. Necrotizing fasciitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Herpes simplex I virus.' This disorder is known as Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS), where a Staphylococcus aureus organism produces an exfoliative toxin leading to skin exfoliation and large blister formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Herpes simplex viruses (I and II) cause different types of skin lesions and do not lead to exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe soft tissue infection, while cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that does not typically involve exfoliation and blister formation like in SSSS.
2. Which of the following is a common cause of secondary hypertension?
- A. Primary aldosteronism
- B. Essential hypertension
- C. White coat hypertension
- D. Prehypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Primary aldosteronism is a common cause of secondary hypertension. In primary aldosteronism, there is an overproduction of aldosterone from the adrenal glands, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion, ultimately resulting in high blood pressure. Essential hypertension (Choice B) is the most common type of hypertension, but it is considered primary hypertension, not secondary. White coat hypertension (Choice C) refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a clinical setting due to anxiety but not in daily life. Prehypertension (Choice D) is a condition where blood pressure levels are elevated but not high enough to be classified as hypertension.
3. A 55-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide regarding the use of this medication?
- A. Avoid taking over-the-counter antacids while on this medication.
- B. This medication may decrease libido.
- C. This medication may take several months to improve symptoms.
- D. This medication may cause increased hair growth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should inform the patient that finasteride may take several months to improve symptoms of BPH. It is essential for patients to understand the delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and compliance. Choice A is incorrect because there is no significant interaction between finasteride and over-the-counter antacids. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride is more commonly associated with decreased libido rather than increased libido. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is known to reduce hair growth rather than increase it.
4. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?
- A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
- B. To increase cardiac output.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To prevent the development of angina.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.
5. A patient taking oral contraceptives reports breakthrough bleeding. What should the nurse assess in this patient?
- A. Adherence to the medication schedule
- B. The possibility of pregnancy
- C. The need for an increased dosage
- D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, the nurse should assess the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding can be a sign of missed doses or inconsistent timing, which can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Assessing the patient's adherence helps in ensuring proper use of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because breakthrough bleeding is more likely related to adherence issues rather than pregnancy, the need for increased dosage, or the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive.
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