Nursing Elites

1. A patient with an 18 pack per year history presents to a family practice clinic complaining of painless hoarseness and inability to clear mucus. A biopsy of respiratory tract cells is taken and shows that these cells have been replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells. The nurse knows this type of change is referred to as:

• A. Dysplasia
• B. Metaplasia
• C. Hyperplasia
• D. Coagulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of cell with another, which can occur in response to chronic irritation, such as from smoking. In this case, the respiratory tract cells being replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells indicate metaplasia. Dysplasia refers to abnormal development or growth of cells, not replacement; hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, not a replacement; and coagulation is a process related to blood clotting, not cell replacement.

2. Which of the following would the nurse expect to see in a client experiencing hypoventilation?

• A. Increased oxygenation in the alveoli
• B. Increased carbon dioxide in the bloodstream
• C. Decreased hemoglobin in the bloodstream
• D. Decreased carbon dioxide in the alveoli

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In hypoventilation, there is inadequate ventilation leading to decreased removal of carbon dioxide. This results in increased carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. The other choices are incorrect because hypoventilation does not improve oxygenation in the alveoli (Choice A), decrease hemoglobin in the bloodstream (Choice C), or decrease carbon dioxide in the alveoli (Choice D).

3. A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Kidney function tests
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During estradiol therapy, monitoring liver function tests is essential due to the potential for liver dysfunction. Estradiol can affect liver function, making it crucial to monitor enzyme levels. Choice A, blood glucose levels, is not directly impacted by estradiol therapy, making it an incorrect choice. Choice C, kidney function tests, is not typically affected by estradiol therapy, so it is not the priority for monitoring. Choice D, blood pressure, is also not the primary parameter to monitor during estradiol therapy unless there are pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.

4. During an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function, which finding would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?

• A. Hypotonia
• B. Hyperreflexia
• C. Muscle atrophy
• D. Fasciculations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.

5. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. History of peptic ulcer disease
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates combined with sildenafil can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of peptic ulcer disease, use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of hypertension are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use.

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