ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient with an 18 pack per year history presents to a family practice clinic complaining of painless hoarseness and inability to clear mucus. A biopsy of respiratory tract cells is taken and shows that these cells have been replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells. The nurse knows this type of change is referred to as:
- A. Dysplasia
- B. Metaplasia
- C. Hyperplasia
- D. Coagulation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of cell with another, which can occur in response to chronic irritation, such as from smoking. In this case, the respiratory tract cells being replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells indicate metaplasia. Dysplasia refers to abnormal development or growth of cells, not replacement; hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, not a replacement; and coagulation is a process related to blood clotting, not cell replacement.
2. A patient is being treated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms. What are the risks associated with long-term HRT that the nurse should discuss with the patient?
- A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events and breast cancer.
- B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- D. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer. These risks should be discussed with the patient to ensure they are informed about the potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of certain conditions like cardiovascular events. Choice C is incorrect as HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, not a decreased risk. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may have positive effects like improving symptoms of menopause, it is not primarily indicated for improving mood and energy levels.
3. What important information should the nurse provide about the risks associated with tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for a patient with a history of breast cancer?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients on tamoxifen should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; it may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, and it may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
4. Mrs. Jordan is an elderly client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. She becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:
- A. tell the client firmly that it is time to get dressed.
- B. obtain assistance to restrain the client for safety.
- C. remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
- D. call the doctor and request an order for sedation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with an elderly client with Alzheimer’s disease who is agitated and combative, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to remain calm and talk quietly to the client. This approach can help soothe the client and prevent escalating the situation. Choice A is incorrect as being firm may further agitate the client. Choice B is inappropriate as restraining should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons and after other de-escalation techniques have been attempted. Choice D is not the best initial intervention and should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have failed.
5. A client is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident in which she suffered a spinal cord injury at the level of C5. Which of the following assessments should be the priority?
- A. Monitoring urinary output
- B. Monitoring heart rate and rhythm
- C. Monitoring respiratory rate
- D. Monitoring the client's pain levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring heart rate and rhythm. With a C5 spinal cord injury, monitoring heart rate and rhythm is crucial as it can impact autonomic regulation. This level of injury can affect cardiac function due to the disruption of sympathetic nerve fibers. Monitoring urinary output may be important to assess for urinary retention, but it is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring respiratory rate is essential in all patients, in this case, cardiovascular stability takes precedence. Pain management is important but is not the priority when assessing a client with a C5 spinal cord injury.
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