Nursing Elites

1. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?

• A. Hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue
• B. An increase in blood potassium levels due to excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone
• C. Sodium retention and elevated levels of potassium
• D. Edema due to increased urine production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.

2. A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should plan to administer total parenteral nutrition for which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is postoperative following a laminectomy and is receiving IV PCA
• B. A client who has dysphagia and does not recognize his family
• C. A client who has COPD and is going home with oxygen
• D. A client who has colon cancer and will undergo a hemicolectomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is essential for clients undergoing significant surgical procedures like a hemicolectomy to ensure they receive adequate nutrition when oral intake is not possible. Choices A, B, and C do not typically require TPN. Choice A is managing postoperative pain with IV PCA, choice B is likely to need alternative feeding methods due to dysphagia, and choice C is going home with oxygen for COPD management, which does not directly relate to the need for TPN.

3. Which animal-derived food contains the most significant level of carbohydrates?

• A. Egg
• B. Beef
• C. Milk
• D. Poultry

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Milk contains the most significant level of carbohydrates among animal-derived foods. Milk and milk products supply significant quantities of carbohydrate in the form of lactose. Eggs, beef, and poultry are not significant sources of carbohydrates compared to milk. In cheese making, lactose is removed as a by-product, reducing the carbohydrate content further.

4. When is Prevident indicated?

• A. High caries risk
• B. Crown and bridge work
• C. Orthodontic decalcification
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.

5. Which assessment finding indicates effective treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum?

• A. The client's glucose is within the normal range.
• B. The client ate 80% of their breakfast tray.
• C. There is no protein in the client's urine.
• D. The client's blood pressure is 145/75 mmHg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Improved appetite and food intake is an indication of effective treatment.

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