Nursing Elites

1. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?

• A. Hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue
• B. An increase in blood potassium levels due to excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone
• C. Sodium retention and elevated levels of potassium
• D. Edema due to increased urine production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.

2. Which of the following actions would be of highest priority with regards to the external shunt?

• A. Avoid taking blood pressure or blood sample from the arm with the shunt
• B. Instruct the patient not to exercise the arm with the shunt
• C. Heparinize the shunt daily
• D. Change the dressing of the shunt daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heparinizing the shunt daily (choice C) is the highest priority action as it prevents the formation of blood clots that can occlude the shunt, leading to potential complications such as thrombosis. Avoiding taking blood pressure or blood samples from the arm with the shunt (choice A) is also important, but secondary to heparinizing the shunt. Similarly, instructing the patient not to exercise the arm with the shunt (choice B) can help prevent unnecessary strain on the shunt, but it is not as critical as preventing clot formation. Changing the dressing of the shunt daily (choice D) is a standard nursing care practice to prevent infection, but again, it is not as critical as ensuring the shunt remains patent through daily heparinization.

3. After ileostomy, which of the following condition is NOT expected?

• A. Increased weight
• B. Irritation of skin around the stoma
• C. Liquid stool
• D. Establishment of regular bowel movement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

4. A client who was normal weight before pregnancy asks about the recommended weight gain during pregnancy. What should the nurse advise?

• A. 18-40 pounds
• B. 25-35 pounds
• C. 11-20 pounds
• D. 15-25 pounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 25-35 pounds. According to standard prenatal guidelines, a client with a normal pre-pregnancy weight is recommended to gain between 25-35 pounds during pregnancy. This weight gain is important for the overall health of the mother and the developing baby. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fall within the recommended weight gain range for a client with a normal pre-pregnancy weight.

5. What is the procedure called when direct observations are used to generate an estimate of a client's current food intake?

• A. Food diary
• B. 24-hour recall
• C. Kilocalorie count
• D. Nutrient surveillance record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A kilocalorie count is the correct answer as it involves directly observing a client's food intake, which is often used in hospitals to accurately assess nutritional intake and ensure it meets dietary requirements. A food diary (Choice A) is typically self-reported by the client and not directly observed. A 24-hour recall (Choice B) is also usually self-reported and relies on a client's memory of the past 24 hours, which can be unreliable. A nutrient surveillance record (Choice D) is a broader term for tracking nutrient intake in a population and is not specific to the direct observation of an individual's food intake.

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