Nursing Elites

1. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?

• A. Hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue
• B. An increase in blood potassium levels due to excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone
• C. Sodium retention and elevated levels of potassium
• D. Edema due to increased urine production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.

2. The breakdown in teamwork is often times a failure in:

• A. Electricity
• B. Inadequate supply
• C. Leg work
• D. Communication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

3. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

• A. Regular Check-ups
• B. Regular Screening
• C. Self-Medication
• D. Immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

4. A client who is postpartum and has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia should be taught to consume which of the following dietary recommendations?

• A. Yogurt and mozzarella
• B. Spinach and beef
• C. Milk and turkey slices
• D. Fish and cottage cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is spinach and beef. Both spinach and beef are high in iron, making them excellent choices to help combat iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt, mozzarella, milk, turkey slices, fish, and cottage cheese are not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef, so they are not the most suitable dietary recommendations for a client with iron deficiency anemia.

5. Which of the following treatments is not recommended for a child classified with no dehydration?

• A. Administering 1,000 ml to 1,400 ml within 4 hours
• B. Continuing feeding
• C. Allowing the child to take as much fluid as he wants
• D. Returning the child to the doctor if the condition worsens

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Continuing feeding is a recommended treatment for a child classified with no dehydration. This helps maintain the child's nutritional status and supports recovery. Options A, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a child with no dehydration. Option A ensures adequate fluid intake, option C promotes hydration, and option D ensures appropriate follow-up if the condition worsens.

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