ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. Which of the following mediates humoral immunity?
- A. Natural killer cells
- B. T cells
- C. B cells
- D. Neutrophils
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Humoral immunity is mediated by B cells, not natural killer cells, T cells, or neutrophils. B cells are responsible for producing antibodies, which are essential components of humoral immunity.
2. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?
- A. Suprapubic pain
- B. Periorbital edema
- C. Low serum creatinine level
- D. Palpable kidneys
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Palpable kidneys. Polycystic kidney disease often leads to the development of multiple fluid-filled cysts within the kidneys, causing them to enlarge. Enlarged kidneys can be palpated during a physical examination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suprapubic pain is not a typical clinical manifestation of polycystic kidney disease. Periorbital edema is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome or heart failure. Low serum creatinine level is not expected in patients with renal impairment due to polycystic kidney disease; instead, elevated serum creatinine levels are more likely.
3. Which manifestation of stress reflects the non-specific fight or flight response?
- A. Decreased pupillary light response
- B. Increased GI motility
- C. Decreased short-term memory
- D. Increased cardiopulmonary rates
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased cardiopulmonary rates.' The fight or flight response, activated by stress, is a non-specific physiological reaction that prepares the body to deal with perceived threats. In this response, the heart rate and breathing rate increase to supply more oxygen to muscles and vital organs, enabling a rapid response in dangerous situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased pupillary light response, increased GI motility, and decreased short-term memory are not typical manifestations of the fight or flight response.
4. A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?
- A. Sputum culture
- B. Bronchoscopy
- C. Chest x-ray
- D. CT scan of the chest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.
5. After studying about viruses, which information indicates the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses:
- A. Contain no RNA or DNA
- B. Are capable of independent reproduction
- C. Replicate their genetic material inside host cells
- D. Are killed easily by antimicrobials
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Viruses replicate their genetic material inside host cells, which is a fundamental aspect of their life cycle. Choice A is incorrect because viruses contain either RNA or DNA. Choice B is incorrect as viruses cannot reproduce independently and rely on host cells for replication. Choice D is incorrect as viruses are not easily killed by antimicrobials due to their unique structure and mechanisms of infection.
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