how should a nurse manage a patient with a chest tube

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a chest tube?

A. Ensuring the chest tube is secured properly and functioning
B. Checking for air leaks and ensuring drainage is working
C. Ensuring chest tube drainage is below chest level
D. Ensuring proper documentation of chest tube output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proper documentation of chest tube output is crucial in the care of a patient with a chest tube. While ensuring the chest tube is secured and functioning, checking for air leaks, and maintaining drainage below chest level are important aspects of care, documentation of output is essential for monitoring the patient's condition, assessing the effectiveness of treatment, and ensuring appropriate interventions if needed.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

A. Hip pallor
B. Leg abduction
C. Muscle spasms
D. Leg lengthening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle spasms are a common finding in clients with hip fractures. The muscle spasms occur due to the body's natural response to the injury, causing involuntary contractions. Hip pallor (Choice A) is not typically associated with hip fractures. Leg abduction (Choice B) and leg lengthening (Choice D) are not typical findings in clients with hip fractures, as the fracture usually results in limited range of motion and shortening of the affected limb.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has not voided for 8 hours following the removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. Provide assistance to the bathroom
B. Insert a straight catheter
C. Increase fluids
D. Perform a bladder scan

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Performing a bladder scan is the first step to assess bladder retention before any further interventions.

4. Which of the following is a common manifestation of opioid withdrawal?

A. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Tremors and increased blood pressure
C. Severe muscle weakness and fatigue
D. Severe hallucinations and delusions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors and increased blood pressure. During opioid withdrawal, individuals commonly experience symptoms such as tremors, increased blood pressure, and restlessness. Choice A, which suggests bradycardia and hypotension, is incorrect as opioid withdrawal often leads to tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and increased blood pressure. Choice C, severe muscle weakness and fatigue, is not a typical manifestation of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, severe hallucinations and delusions, is more characteristic of conditions like delirium tremens associated with alcohol withdrawal, rather than opioid withdrawal.

5. Which factor places a patient at the highest risk for infection?

A. A healthy immune system
B. Presence of chronic illness
C. Being well-nourished
D. Age over 65 years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of chronic illness is the factor that places a patient at the highest risk for infection. Chronic illness can compromise the immune system's ability to fight off infections effectively, making individuals more susceptible to getting sick. Option A, a healthy immune system, actually reduces the risk of infection. Option C, being well-nourished, can support overall health but does not directly correlate with infection risk. While age over 65 years is a risk factor for certain infections due to age-related immune system changes, chronic illness has a more significant impact on infection risk.