how should a nurse manage a patient with a chest tube
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a chest tube?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proper documentation of chest tube output is crucial in the care of a patient with a chest tube. While ensuring the chest tube is secured and functioning, checking for air leaks, and maintaining drainage below chest level are important aspects of care, documentation of output is essential for monitoring the patient's condition, assessing the effectiveness of treatment, and ensuring appropriate interventions if needed.

2. How should a healthcare professional position a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correctly positioning a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers involves using pillows to support bony prominences. This helps to relieve pressure from vulnerable areas and prevent the development of pressure ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because keeping a patient in the supine position for extended periods can increase the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as turning the patient every 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours, is recommended to prevent pressure ulcers. Choice D is not the best option mentioned for positioning a patient to reduce pressure ulcer risk; although alternating pressure mattresses can be beneficial, using pillows for support is a more direct and commonly used method.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia who has a new prescription for antibiotics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with pneumonia who has a new prescription for antibiotics is to obtain a sputum culture. This is important to identify the specific bacteria causing the pneumonia before administering antibiotics. Administering the antibiotic immediately (Choice A) may not be appropriate without knowing the specific pathogen. Notifying the provider of the prescription (Choice C) is important but not the first action to be taken. Checking the client's allergy history (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority in this situation.

4. While providing care to a group of patients, which patient should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should see the patient with a hip replacement experiencing chest pain and dyspnea first because these symptoms could indicate a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other patients also need care, but urgent assessment and intervention are crucial in the case of potential pulmonary embolism to prevent serious complications or death.

5. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

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