Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention is most important to implement?

• A. Increase the frequency of bed checks.
• B. Use bed alarms to prevent falls.
• C. Keep the room well lit during the day.
• D. Encourage the client to use a walker for mobility.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using bed alarms to prevent falls is the most important intervention to implement for a client with a history of falls. Bed alarms can provide timely alerts to the healthcare team, allowing for quick assistance to prevent falls. Increasing the frequency of bed checks may not necessarily prevent falls as effectively as direct intervention with bed alarms. Keeping the room well lit is important for general safety but may not address the immediate risk of falls. Encouraging the client to use a walker for mobility is beneficial but may not be as crucial as implementing bed alarms to prevent falls in this scenario.

2. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

• A. The client has a do-not-resuscitate order.
• B. The client has a continuous IV of lactated Ringer's.
• C. The client was straight catheterized for 350 mL 2 hours ago.
• D. The client has Medicare insurance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

3. While reviewing a client's chart, a nurse notices a discrepancy in the medication record. What should the nurse do?

• A. Correct the discrepancy and document the correction.
• B. Report the discrepancy to the nurse manager.
• C. Ignore the discrepancy assuming it is a clerical error.
• D. Discuss the discrepancy with the client and adjust the records.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting medication discrepancies to the nurse manager is crucial to ensure patient safety and proper follow-up. The nurse manager is responsible for addressing medication errors and implementing necessary corrective actions. Choice A is incorrect because simply correcting the discrepancy without reporting it may lead to potential harm to the patient and violates professional standards. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the discrepancy increases the risk of medication errors going unresolved. Choice D is incorrect because discussing the discrepancy with the client before verifying the accuracy of the record can cause confusion and compromise patient safety.

4. A healthcare provider notices a discrepancy in the narcotics log. What is the appropriate response?

• A. Correct the narcotics log and move on.
• B. Report the discrepancy to the supervisor.
• C. Confront the provider responsible for the discrepancy.
• D. Dispose of the medication and ignore the discrepancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a healthcare provider notices a discrepancy in the narcotics log, the appropriate response is to report the issue to the supervisor. Reporting discrepancies is crucial to maintain accountability and prevent potential misuse. Choice A is incorrect because simply correcting the log without addressing the underlying issue does not ensure accountability. Choice C is inappropriate as confronting the provider directly may not be the best approach and could lead to a confrontational situation. Choice D is highly inappropriate as ignoring the discrepancy and disposing of medication without proper documentation can lead to serious consequences.

5. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

Similar Questions