Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient with a tracheostomy?

• A. Clean the tracheostomy site daily
• B. Change the tracheostomy ties daily
• C. Suction the tracheostomy regularly
• D. Provide humidified oxygen

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy regularly is crucial in caring for a patient with a tracheostomy as it helps keep the airway clear of secretions, preventing blockages and potential complications. Cleaning the tracheostomy site daily is important for hygiene but not as critical as regular suctioning. Changing the tracheostomy ties daily may not be necessary unless soiled or loose. Providing humidified oxygen may be part of the care plan but is not as directly related to maintaining the tracheostomy patency as suctioning.

2. A client on glucocorticoid therapy is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I have my eyes examined annually.
• B. I take a calcium vitamin supplement daily.
• C. I limit my intake of foods with potassium.
• D. I consistently take my medication between 8 and 9 each evening.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking a calcium supplement daily is crucial for clients on glucocorticoid therapy to prevent osteoporosis, a common side effect of long-term use. Choice A is unrelated to glucocorticoid therapy. Choice C, limiting potassium intake, is not necessary for clients on glucocorticoids. Choice D, taking medication consistently in the evening, is important but does not specifically address the side effects of glucocorticoid therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Keep the residual limb flat on the bed
• B. Elevate the residual limb on a pillow
• C. Place the client in a prone position for 30 minutes 4 times a day
• D. Keep the residual limb dependent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to place the client in a prone position for 30 minutes four times a day. This position helps prevent contractures after an amputation by stretching the hip flexors and preventing shortening of the residual limb. Keeping the residual limb flat on the bed (Choice A) may lead to contractures. Elevating the residual limb on a pillow (Choice B) can also cause contractures and hinder proper healing. Keeping the residual limb dependent (Choice D) is not recommended as it does not promote proper positioning and circulation.

4. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
• B. Ammonia 35 mcg/dL
• C. Prothrombin time 16 seconds
• D. Albumin 4 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.

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