Nursing Elites

1. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with heart failure, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method for assessing fluid balance. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Monitoring input and output (B) is essential but may not always accurately reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (C) is important as it can indicate fluid accumulation, but daily weight monitoring is more precise. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?

• A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
• B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
• C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
• D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Ataxia.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.

4. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
• B. Apical pulse 58/min
• C. Digoxin level 1 ng/ml
• D. Constipation for 2 days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.

5. How should a healthcare provider handle a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication?

• A. Provide education about medication
• B. Refer the patient to a specialist
• C. Explore alternative treatments
• D. Reassess the patient in 6 months

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing education about the importance of medication adherence is crucial in managing hypertension. By educating the patient about the significance of taking their medication as prescribed, the healthcare provider can help improve compliance and control the patient's blood pressure. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but addressing non-compliance should start with education. Exploring alternative treatments (Choice C) could be considered if the current medication is not suitable, but initial steps should focus on improving adherence. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (Choice D) may be too delayed if non-compliance is an issue that needs immediate attention.

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