Nursing Elites

1. Generally, patients who wear dentures have reduced masticatory efficiency. Mandibular implant-supported dentures can have positive effects on the clinical aspects of mastication and swallowing.

• A. Both statements are true
• B. Both statements are false
• C. The first statement is true; the second is false
• D. The first statement is false; the second is true

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Both statements are true. Patients who wear dentures typically experience reduced masticatory efficiency. Mandibular implant-supported dentures are known to have positive effects on the clinical aspects of mastication and swallowing, significantly improving chewing function. Option A is correct because both statements align with these facts. Option B is incorrect as both statements are true. Option C is incorrect as the second statement is also true. Option D is incorrect as the first statement is true.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings indicates the therapy is effective?

• A. Client has soft, formed bowel movements.
• B. Client’s mucous membranes are pink.
• C. Client reports ability to complete ADLs.
• D. Client’s blood glucose level is within the expected reference range.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because having a blood glucose level within the expected reference range indicates that parenteral nutrition is effectively meeting the client's nutritional needs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because soft, formed bowel movements, pink mucous membranes, and the ability to complete activities of daily living do not directly reflect the effectiveness of parenteral nutrition therapy.

3. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?

• A. Hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue
• B. An increase in blood potassium levels due to excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone
• C. Sodium retention and elevated levels of potassium
• D. Edema due to increased urine production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a major burn injury and is receiving TPN. Which of the following lab tests is the priority for the nurse to use to confirm the client is receiving adequate nutrition?

• A. Iron
• B. Magnesium
• C. Folic acid
• D. Prealbumin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prealbumin is a sensitive indicator of protein status and nutrition, making it a priority for assessing nutritional adequacy in clients receiving TPN. Iron, magnesium, and folic acid levels are important for overall health but do not specifically indicate nutritional adequacy in the context of TPN administration.

5. What is the function of the gallbladder?

• A. to store bile
• B. to produce bile
• C. to digest bile
• D. to modify bile to a liquid form

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "to store bile." The gallbladder acts as a reservoir for bile produced by the liver. It releases bile into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of fats. Choice B is incorrect because the liver produces bile, not the gallbladder. Choice C is incorrect as the gallbladder does not digest bile but stores and releases it for digestion. Choice D is incorrect because bile is already in liquid form; the gallbladder does not modify it to a liquid state.

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