ATI RN
Psychology 2301 Exam 1
1. Freud's psychosexual stage that occurs between the ages of 3 and 5 and includes the Oedipal period is the ________ stage.
- A. genital
- B. oral
- C. phallic
- D. latency
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Freud's psychosexual stage that occurs between the ages of 3 and 5, including the Oedipal period, is the phallic stage. During this stage, children experience the Oedipus or Electra complex, where they develop unconscious sexual desires for the opposite-sex parent and see the same-sex parent as a rival. The genital stage (Choice A) is the final stage where mature sexual interests emerge, oral (Choice B) and anal stages precede the phallic stage, and latency (Choice D) is a stage following the phallic stage characterized by a focus on developing social and cognitive skills.
2. Which school of psychology is associated with understanding the purpose of behavior?
- A. Functionalism.
- B. Behaviorism.
- C. Neodynamism.
- D. Psychoanalysis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Functionalism. Functionalism, founded by William James, emphasizes understanding the purpose and adaptive function of behavior. This school of psychology focuses on how mental processes help individuals adapt to their environment. Choice B, Behaviorism, is incorrect as behaviorism emphasizes observable behaviors rather than the purpose behind them. Choice C, Neodynamism, is not a recognized school of psychology. Choice D, Psychoanalysis, founded by Sigmund Freud, focuses on unconscious processes and early childhood experiences, not specifically on the purpose of behavior.
3. Why is it difficult to determine the nature of the relationship between divorce and the psychological functioning of family members?
- A. Cause and effect cannot be determined as preexisting behavioral abnormalities in either the parents or the children may make divorce more likely.
- B. The findings have been too inconsistent to draw any conclusions.
- C. While the effects of divorce are negative on children, the effects on the spouses are generally positive.
- D. Due to modern acceptance of divorce, there has been an ongoing decrease in the negative effects of divorce.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it highlights a crucial factor that makes it challenging to establish a clear cause and effect relationship between divorce and the psychological functioning of family members. Preexisting behavioral abnormalities in either the parents or the children may influence both the likelihood of divorce and the psychological functioning of family members. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes the findings without specifying the key issue of preexisting conditions. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the effects of divorce on family members. Choice D is incorrect as it presents a broad statement without addressing the complexities involved in determining the effects of divorce.
4. a researcher found that there is a negative relationship between perceived parental perfectionism and life satisfaction. what does this mean?
- A. Respondents who reported higher levels of perceived parental perfectionism are more likely to report higher levels of life satisfaction
- B. Respondents who reported higher levels of perceived parental perfectionism are more likely to report lower levels of life satisfaction
- C. Perceived parental perfectionism causes a decline in life satisfaction
- D. Any of the above is correct
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A negative relationship means that as one variable increases, the other decreases, so higher perceived parental perfectionism is associated with lower life satisfaction.
5. Which of the following explanations for the relationship between SES and abnormal behavior is not supported by the existing data?
- A. Low SES may cause abnormal behavior.
- B. Abnormal behavior is more likely to go untreated in those of low SES.
- C. Recovery from loss of a job may be more difficult for those exhibiting signs of mental illness.
- D. High SES may cause abnormal behavior.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because high SES as a cause for abnormal behavior is not supported by existing data. Abnormal behavior is often associated with factors like stress, trauma, genetics, or environmental influences. High SES is not a known cause of abnormal behavior. Choices A, B, and C are more plausible explanations: Low SES may lead to limited access to mental health care, untreated abnormal behavior due to financial constraints, and difficulties in coping with mental health issues after job loss, respectively.
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