Nursing Elites

1. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.

2. Which of the following is NOT a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course?

• A. Identify principles of basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, and nutrition
• B. Perform basic-level pharmacological calculations
• C. Integrate the knowledge of drug therapy into nursing practice
• D. Identify basic principles of field nursing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Integrating drug therapy knowledge is not a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course. Phase I typically focuses on foundational knowledge and skills, such as understanding basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, and nutrition (Choice A), performing basic-level pharmacological calculations (Choice B), and identifying basic principles of field nursing (Choice D). While drug therapy knowledge is important in nursing practice, it is not a specific terminal learning objective for Phase I of this course.

3. Why are hospital patients at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions than they used to be?

• A. Hospitalized patients are more acutely ill
• B. Hospital routines interfere with the correct timing of medications
• C. Drugs used today are more toxic and have more side effects
• D. Responsibility for monitoring this is shared by various members of the healthcare team

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hospitalized patients are at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions because they are more acutely ill, often having multiple conditions and treatments that increase the risk of such interactions. Choice B is incorrect as hospital routines interfering with medication timing are not directly related to drug-nutrient interactions. Choice C is incorrect as the toxicity and side effects of drugs do not necessarily relate to interactions with nutrients. Choice D is incorrect as shared responsibility for monitoring does not directly contribute to the increased risk of drug-nutrient interactions in hospitalized patients.

4. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

5. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:

• A. Platelets
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Calcium
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.

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