Nursing Elites

1. During the assessment of a client’s mouth, the nurse notes the absence of saliva. The client is also complaining of pain near the area of the ear. The client has been NPO for several days because of the insertion of an NG tube. Based on these findings, the nurse suspects that the client is developing which of the following mouth conditions?

• A. Stomatitis
• B. Oral candidiasis
• C. Parotitis
• D. Gingivitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Parotitis. Parotitis, inflammation of the parotid glands, can occur due to the absence of saliva and dehydration, often associated with being NPO and having an NG tube. Stomatitis (choice A) is inflammation of the oral mucosa, not specifically related to absent saliva. Oral candidiasis (choice B) is a fungal infection that can occur in the mouth, not directly related to the absence of saliva. Gingivitis (choice D) is inflammation of the gums and is not typically associated with the absence of saliva and dehydration.

2. The nurse is evaluating the plan of care for a client with peptic ulcer disease with a nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain. The nurse would determine that the client has not met the expected outcomes if the client states

• A. That pain is relieved with histamine H2 receptor antagonists.
• B. That irritating foods have been eliminated from the diet.
• C. The client is being awakened at 2 AM with heartburn.
• D. The client has absence of pain before meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Expected outcomes for the client with peptic ulcer disease experiencing pain include elimination of irritating foods from the diet, ability to take prescribed medications that will reduce pain, reporting that the pain is relieved or prevented with medication, and an ability to sleep through the night without pain. The client who continues to be awakened by pain requires further modification of medication therapy, which may include adjustment of timing of histamine H2 receptor antagonist or an additional dose of antacid before the time when pain awakens the client.

3. Which of the following associated disorders may the client with Crohn’s disease exhibit?

• A. Ankylosing spondylitis
• B. Colon cancer
• C. Malabsorption
• D. Lactase deficiency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with Crohn's disease may exhibit associated disorders such as ankylosing spondylitis, which is an inflammatory condition affecting the spine.

4. The nurse provides medication instructions to a client with peptic ulcer disease. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates the best understanding of the medication therapy?

• A. The cimetidine (Tagamet) will cause me to produce less stomach acid.
• B. Sucralfate (Carafate) will change the fluid in my stomach.
• C. Antacids will coat my stomach.
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec) will coat the ulcer and help it heal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cimetidine (Tagamet) works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps to manage peptic ulcer disease.

5. A client with ulcerative colitis has an order to begin salicylate medication to reduce inflammation. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication:

• A. 30 minutes before meals
• B. On an empty stomach
• C. After meals
• D. On arising

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: After meals. Salicylate medications for ulcerative colitis should be taken after meals to minimize gastrointestinal irritation and enhance absorption. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice B) may increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Taking it 30 minutes before meals (Choice A) may not provide enough protection for the stomach lining. Taking it on arising (Choice D) is not recommended as it may not coincide with the peak absorption times of the medication.

Similar Questions