ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. During the admission assessment of a client with advanced ovarian cancer, the nurse recognizes which symptom as typical of the disease?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hypermenorrhea
- C. Abnormal bleeding
- D. Abdominal distention
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abdominal distention is a common symptom in advanced ovarian cancer due to several factors, including the accumulation of ascites (fluid in the abdominal cavity) and the presence of tumors that can increase abdominal girth. As the disease progresses, the pressure from growing masses or fluid buildup can lead to noticeable swelling and discomfort in the abdomen. This symptom often prompts further evaluation and can significantly impact the patient’s quality of life.
2. A 30-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the patient's intravenous therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests BEST reflects hydration status?
- A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
- B. White blood cell count.
- C. Hematocrit.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hematocrit is the best indicator of hydration status because it reflects the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. An increased hematocrit indicates dehydration, as the blood becomes more concentrated due to fluid loss. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Choice A) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation, not hydration status. White blood cell count (Choice B) is an indicator of infection or inflammation. Serum glucose (Choice D) is used to monitor blood sugar levels, not hydration status.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid vitamin K-rich foods.
- B. I will avoid using aspirin while on this medication.
- C. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
- D. I will increase my intake of leafy greens.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Warfarin's effectiveness is reduced by high intake of vitamin K-rich foods, so increasing their intake would contradict the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding vitamin K-rich foods helps maintain the medication's effectiveness, avoiding aspirin reduces the risk of bleeding, and monitoring blood pressure is essential for overall health monitoring.
4. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Potassium
- B. PT/INR
- C. Sodium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.
5. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?
- A. Regular insulin
- B. Furosemide
- C. Valproic acid
- D. Ferrous sulfate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.
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