ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which behavior is consistent with therapeutic communication?
- A. Offering your opinion when asked to convey support.
- B. Summarizing the essence of the patient's comments in your own words.
- C. Interrupting periods of silence before they become awkward for the patient.
- D. Telling the patient they did well when you approve of their statements or actions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Summarizing the essence of the patient's comments in your own words is a key aspect of therapeutic communication as it demonstrates active listening and understanding. It shows the patient that their words have been heard and understood, fostering a sense of validation and empathy. Offering opinions, interrupting silence, or giving approval may not always align with the principles of therapeutic communication, which focus on patient-centered interactions and empathetic responses.
2. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?
- A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
- B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
- C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
- D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.
3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Furosemide, a diuretic, commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) as it increases the excretion of sodium. The nurse needs to monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as confusion, weakness, and muscle cramps, by checking electrolyte levels regularly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia (choice A), hypernatremia (choice C), and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Furosemide use.
4. An 80-year-old patient with a history of renal insufficiency was recently started on cimetidine. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient may be experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Pain with urination
- B. New onset disorientation to time and place
- C. HR changes from a baseline of 70-80bpm to 110-120bpm
- D. #ERROR!
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: New onset disorientation to time and place. Cimetidine can cause adverse effects on the CNS system, especially in elderly patients with renal or hepatic impairment. This may manifest as confusion, hallucinations, lethargy, restlessness, or seizures. Pain with urination (choice A) is not typically associated with cimetidine use, and HR changes (choice C) are more likely related to other factors. Choice D is not a valid option.
5. Which of the following is not a side effect of loop diuretics?
- A. Alkalosis
- B. Nausea
- C. Hypotension
- D. Potassium deficits
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea is not commonly associated with loop diuretics. Loop diuretics are known to cause electrolyte imbalances such as potassium deficits, metabolic alkalosis, and hypotension due to excessive fluid loss. Nausea is not a typical side effect of loop diuretics.
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