Nursing Elites

1. Directly Observed Treatment Short Course (D.O.T.S.) can do all of the following except:

• A. Stop resistance to anti-TB drugs
• B. Cure TB patients
• C. Require hospitalization
• D. Prevent new infection among children and adults

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Directly Observed Treatment Short Course (D.O.T.S.) is an effective strategy for treating tuberculosis (TB) that involves ensuring patients receive and complete their medication regimen under observation. DOTS aims to cure TB patients, stop resistance to anti-TB drugs, and prevent new infections among children and adults. One of the key advantages of DOTS is that it does not require hospitalization, allowing patients to receive treatment in their communities. Therefore, the statement that DOTS requires hospitalization is incorrect, making option C the correct answer.

2. What are stressful occurrences referred to as?

• A. Health deficit
• B. Health threats
• C. Health need
• D. Foreseeable crisis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stressful occurrences are known as foreseeable crises. These are situations that can be anticipated or expected to bring about stress or challenges.

3. What procedure is performed prior to a blood transfusion to detect incompatibilities?

• A. Grouping and crossmatching
• B. Complete blood count
• C. D-dimer test
• D. Blood clotting test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Grouping and crossmatching is the procedure performed prior to a blood transfusion to determine the blood type and identify any potential incompatibilities between the donor and recipient. This process involves testing the recipient's blood for ABO and Rh antigens and crossmatching it with the donor's blood to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions during the transfusion. Complete blood count, D-dimer test, and blood clotting test are other laboratory tests that serve different purposes and are not specifically done to detect incompatibilities prior to blood transfusion.

4. Which best describes a key goal of secondary prevention?

• A. Preventing the onset of disease
• B. Detecting diseases early
• C. Managing chronic conditions
• D. Improving quality of life

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The key goal of secondary prevention is to detect diseases early before they progress to advanced stages. By identifying diseases at an early stage, healthcare providers can intervene promptly, initiate treatment, and potentially improve patient outcomes. This approach aims to prevent complications and reduce the impact of the disease on an individual's health and well-being.

5. What best describes the importance of community partnerships in health promotion?

• A. They provide additional resources and support.
• B. They reduce the workload of healthcare professionals.
• C. They ensure compliance with regulations.
• D. They create competition among healthcare organizations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Community partnerships play a crucial role in health promotion by providing additional resources and support. These partnerships enhance the effectiveness of health promotion activities by leveraging diverse skills, knowledge, and resources from various community stakeholders. Collaborating with community partners can expand the reach and impact of health promotion initiatives beyond what could be achieved solely by healthcare professionals.

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